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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
In a BGP network, you are troubleshooting a situation where a specific route is not being advertised to a peer. You have verified that the route exists in the routing table and that the BGP session is established. You suspect that the issue may be related to route filtering. Which of the following actions would you take first to diagnose the problem effectively?
Correct
Verifying the BGP AS path is also important, as AS path filtering can block routes based on the AS numbers they traverse. However, this step is secondary to checking the route map, as the route map is the first line of defense in controlling route advertisement. Examining BGP update messages can provide insights into whether the route is being sent but not accepted, but this is more of a diagnostic step after confirming that the route is indeed being advertised. Lastly, reviewing the BGP configuration for missing network statements is essential, but if the route is present in the routing table, it indicates that the network statement is likely correct. Therefore, the most effective first action is to check the route map for any deny statements that might be filtering the route. This approach ensures a focused and efficient troubleshooting process, allowing for quicker identification of the root cause of the issue.
Incorrect
Verifying the BGP AS path is also important, as AS path filtering can block routes based on the AS numbers they traverse. However, this step is secondary to checking the route map, as the route map is the first line of defense in controlling route advertisement. Examining BGP update messages can provide insights into whether the route is being sent but not accepted, but this is more of a diagnostic step after confirming that the route is indeed being advertised. Lastly, reviewing the BGP configuration for missing network statements is essential, but if the route is present in the routing table, it indicates that the network statement is likely correct. Therefore, the most effective first action is to check the route map for any deny statements that might be filtering the route. This approach ensures a focused and efficient troubleshooting process, allowing for quicker identification of the root cause of the issue.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
In a network utilizing EIGRP Named Mode, a network engineer is tasked with configuring EIGRP for a new branch office that will connect to the main office. The engineer needs to ensure that the EIGRP process is optimized for both bandwidth and convergence time. Given the following configurations, which configuration option will best achieve optimal EIGRP performance while maintaining the necessary administrative distance and route summarization?
Correct
Route summarization is a critical aspect of EIGRP configuration, as it reduces the size of the routing table and minimizes the amount of routing information exchanged between routers. The command `summary-address [SUMMARY_ADDRESS] [SUMMARY_MASK]` allows the engineer to define a summarized route that represents multiple subnets, thus optimizing bandwidth usage and improving convergence times. In contrast, the second option, which relies solely on the default administrative distance without specifying network statements, would not effectively utilize EIGRP’s capabilities, as it would not enable any interfaces for EIGRP operation. The third option, while allowing for multiple equal-cost paths, neglects the importance of summarization, which is vital for efficient routing. Lastly, disabling split horizon, as suggested in the fourth option, can lead to routing loops and increased unnecessary traffic, which is counterproductive to the goal of optimizing EIGRP performance. Therefore, the best approach is to configure EIGRP with the appropriate network statements and enable route summarization, ensuring both efficient bandwidth usage and rapid convergence. This comprehensive understanding of EIGRP’s configuration nuances is essential for effective network management and optimization.
Incorrect
Route summarization is a critical aspect of EIGRP configuration, as it reduces the size of the routing table and minimizes the amount of routing information exchanged between routers. The command `summary-address [SUMMARY_ADDRESS] [SUMMARY_MASK]` allows the engineer to define a summarized route that represents multiple subnets, thus optimizing bandwidth usage and improving convergence times. In contrast, the second option, which relies solely on the default administrative distance without specifying network statements, would not effectively utilize EIGRP’s capabilities, as it would not enable any interfaces for EIGRP operation. The third option, while allowing for multiple equal-cost paths, neglects the importance of summarization, which is vital for efficient routing. Lastly, disabling split horizon, as suggested in the fourth option, can lead to routing loops and increased unnecessary traffic, which is counterproductive to the goal of optimizing EIGRP performance. Therefore, the best approach is to configure EIGRP with the appropriate network statements and enable route summarization, ensuring both efficient bandwidth usage and rapid convergence. This comprehensive understanding of EIGRP’s configuration nuances is essential for effective network management and optimization.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
In a corporate network, a company has implemented a dual-homed design for its Internet connectivity to enhance resiliency. Each of the two Internet Service Providers (ISPs) provides a separate link to the corporate router. The company uses BGP for routing between the ISPs and its internal network. During a routine check, the network engineer notices that one of the ISP links is down. What is the expected behavior of the BGP routing protocol in this scenario, and how does it ensure continued connectivity for the corporate network?
Correct
The remaining active ISP link will still have its routes advertised, allowing BGP to reroute traffic through this link without requiring manual intervention. This automatic failover capability is a fundamental feature of BGP, which is designed to maintain network stability and connectivity even in the event of link failures. Furthermore, BGP’s path selection process ensures that the best available route is used for outbound traffic, which is crucial for maintaining service continuity. The use of BGP also allows for load balancing across multiple links, enhancing overall network performance. In contrast, the incorrect options highlight common misconceptions about BGP’s functionality. For instance, the idea that BGP would require manual intervention or drop all routes reflects a misunderstanding of how BGP operates in a multi-homed environment. BGP’s resilience is a key reason why it is widely used in enterprise networks, as it provides a robust mechanism for handling link failures while ensuring that traffic continues to flow through the available paths.
Incorrect
The remaining active ISP link will still have its routes advertised, allowing BGP to reroute traffic through this link without requiring manual intervention. This automatic failover capability is a fundamental feature of BGP, which is designed to maintain network stability and connectivity even in the event of link failures. Furthermore, BGP’s path selection process ensures that the best available route is used for outbound traffic, which is crucial for maintaining service continuity. The use of BGP also allows for load balancing across multiple links, enhancing overall network performance. In contrast, the incorrect options highlight common misconceptions about BGP’s functionality. For instance, the idea that BGP would require manual intervention or drop all routes reflects a misunderstanding of how BGP operates in a multi-homed environment. BGP’s resilience is a key reason why it is widely used in enterprise networks, as it provides a robust mechanism for handling link failures while ensuring that traffic continues to flow through the available paths.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
A company is planning to deploy a new wireless network across its corporate headquarters, which consists of multiple floors and a large open area. They want to ensure optimal coverage and performance while minimizing interference from neighboring networks. The network will utilize 802.11ac technology, and the IT team is considering the placement of access points (APs) to achieve the best results. Given that the building has a total area of 10,000 square feet and the effective coverage area of each AP is approximately 2,500 square feet, how many access points should the company deploy to ensure complete coverage? Additionally, what factors should be considered to minimize interference from adjacent networks?
Correct
$$ \text{Number of APs} = \frac{\text{Total Area}}{\text{Coverage Area per AP}} = \frac{10,000 \text{ sq ft}}{2,500 \text{ sq ft/AP}} = 4 \text{ APs} $$ Thus, the company should deploy 4 access points to ensure complete coverage of the area. However, simply deploying the correct number of access points is not sufficient for optimal performance. The IT team must also consider several factors to minimize interference from neighboring networks. These factors include: 1. **Channel Selection**: In the 5 GHz band, there are more non-overlapping channels available compared to the 2.4 GHz band. The IT team should select channels that are least used by neighboring networks to reduce co-channel interference. For example, using channels 36, 40, 44, and 48 can help avoid interference if neighboring networks are using channels in the 2.4 GHz band. 2. **Physical Barriers**: The presence of walls, furniture, and other physical barriers can affect signal propagation. The IT team should conduct a site survey to identify potential obstacles and adjust the placement of access points accordingly to ensure optimal signal strength and coverage. 3. **AP Placement**: Access points should be strategically placed to minimize overlap while ensuring that there are no dead zones. The IT team should consider the layout of the building, including the number of floors and the open areas, to determine the best locations for the APs. 4. **Load Balancing**: If the network is expected to handle a large number of clients, the IT team should consider implementing load balancing features to distribute client connections evenly across the access points. By taking these factors into account, the company can ensure not only complete coverage but also a robust and high-performing wireless network that minimizes interference from adjacent networks.
Incorrect
$$ \text{Number of APs} = \frac{\text{Total Area}}{\text{Coverage Area per AP}} = \frac{10,000 \text{ sq ft}}{2,500 \text{ sq ft/AP}} = 4 \text{ APs} $$ Thus, the company should deploy 4 access points to ensure complete coverage of the area. However, simply deploying the correct number of access points is not sufficient for optimal performance. The IT team must also consider several factors to minimize interference from neighboring networks. These factors include: 1. **Channel Selection**: In the 5 GHz band, there are more non-overlapping channels available compared to the 2.4 GHz band. The IT team should select channels that are least used by neighboring networks to reduce co-channel interference. For example, using channels 36, 40, 44, and 48 can help avoid interference if neighboring networks are using channels in the 2.4 GHz band. 2. **Physical Barriers**: The presence of walls, furniture, and other physical barriers can affect signal propagation. The IT team should conduct a site survey to identify potential obstacles and adjust the placement of access points accordingly to ensure optimal signal strength and coverage. 3. **AP Placement**: Access points should be strategically placed to minimize overlap while ensuring that there are no dead zones. The IT team should consider the layout of the building, including the number of floors and the open areas, to determine the best locations for the APs. 4. **Load Balancing**: If the network is expected to handle a large number of clients, the IT team should consider implementing load balancing features to distribute client connections evenly across the access points. By taking these factors into account, the company can ensure not only complete coverage but also a robust and high-performing wireless network that minimizes interference from adjacent networks.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
In a BGP environment, a network engineer is troubleshooting a situation where a specific route is not being advertised to a peer. The engineer checks the BGP configuration and finds that the route is present in the routing table but not in the BGP table. The engineer also verifies that the route is not filtered by any route maps or prefix lists. What could be the most likely reason for this behavior, considering the BGP attributes and the state of the route?
Correct
The AS path length, while important for route selection, does not directly prevent a route from being advertised if it is valid and reachable. An incorrect AS path length would typically affect the route’s preference during the selection process but would not cause it to be absent from the BGP table altogether. If the route were in a down state due to a network failure, it would not appear in the routing table, which contradicts the scenario presented. Similarly, while local preference settings can influence route selection and advertisement, they do not suppress routes that are valid and reachable; they merely affect the preference of routes when multiple paths exist. Thus, the most plausible explanation for the route’s absence in the BGP table, despite its presence in the routing table, is the missing or unreachable next-hop attribute. This highlights the importance of ensuring that all necessary BGP attributes are correctly configured and reachable to facilitate proper route advertisement.
Incorrect
The AS path length, while important for route selection, does not directly prevent a route from being advertised if it is valid and reachable. An incorrect AS path length would typically affect the route’s preference during the selection process but would not cause it to be absent from the BGP table altogether. If the route were in a down state due to a network failure, it would not appear in the routing table, which contradicts the scenario presented. Similarly, while local preference settings can influence route selection and advertisement, they do not suppress routes that are valid and reachable; they merely affect the preference of routes when multiple paths exist. Thus, the most plausible explanation for the route’s absence in the BGP table, despite its presence in the routing table, is the missing or unreachable next-hop attribute. This highlights the importance of ensuring that all necessary BGP attributes are correctly configured and reachable to facilitate proper route advertisement.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
A company has been assigned a public IP address range of 192.0.2.0/24 for its internal network. The network administrator decides to implement Dynamic NAT to allow internal users to access the internet while conserving the number of public IP addresses used. The internal network consists of 50 devices that need to access the internet simultaneously. If the Dynamic NAT pool is configured with 20 public IP addresses, what will be the outcome when all internal devices attempt to access the internet at the same time?
Correct
When all 50 devices attempt to access the internet, only the first 20 devices will be able to successfully establish connections using the available public IP addresses. The remaining 30 devices will be unable to access the internet because there are no additional public IP addresses available in the NAT pool to assign to them. This behavior is a fundamental characteristic of Dynamic NAT, which does not allow for over-allocation of public IP addresses beyond what is configured in the NAT pool. It is also important to note that Dynamic NAT does not automatically allocate additional public IP addresses from another range; it strictly adheres to the defined pool. Therefore, the NAT configuration will not fail, but rather it will limit the number of concurrent connections based on the size of the NAT pool. This scenario highlights the importance of properly sizing the NAT pool to accommodate the maximum number of simultaneous connections required by internal devices. In summary, the outcome is that only a limited number of devices can access the internet at any given time, emphasizing the need for careful planning in NAT configurations to ensure adequate public IP address availability.
Incorrect
When all 50 devices attempt to access the internet, only the first 20 devices will be able to successfully establish connections using the available public IP addresses. The remaining 30 devices will be unable to access the internet because there are no additional public IP addresses available in the NAT pool to assign to them. This behavior is a fundamental characteristic of Dynamic NAT, which does not allow for over-allocation of public IP addresses beyond what is configured in the NAT pool. It is also important to note that Dynamic NAT does not automatically allocate additional public IP addresses from another range; it strictly adheres to the defined pool. Therefore, the NAT configuration will not fail, but rather it will limit the number of concurrent connections based on the size of the NAT pool. This scenario highlights the importance of properly sizing the NAT pool to accommodate the maximum number of simultaneous connections required by internal devices. In summary, the outcome is that only a limited number of devices can access the internet at any given time, emphasizing the need for careful planning in NAT configurations to ensure adequate public IP address availability.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
In a corporate environment, a network engineer is tasked with implementing a security policy that ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive data transmitted over the network. The engineer decides to use a combination of encryption protocols and access control measures. Which of the following approaches best aligns with the principles of the CIA triad while ensuring that only authorized users can access the sensitive data?
Correct
Implementing IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) is a robust choice for encrypting data in transit, as it provides confidentiality through encryption and integrity through authentication mechanisms. IPsec operates at the network layer, ensuring that all data packets are secured as they traverse the network, thus protecting against eavesdropping and tampering. In conjunction with IPsec, employing Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is an effective strategy for managing user permissions. RBAC allows the organization to define roles based on job functions, assigning permissions to those roles rather than to individual users. This not only simplifies the management of user access but also ensures that users have the minimum necessary permissions to perform their tasks, thereby enhancing security. In contrast, while SSL/TLS (used in option b) is effective for securing web traffic, it does not provide the same level of comprehensive protection for all types of data transmission as IPsec. Additionally, MAC (Mandatory Access Control) can be more complex to implement and may not be necessary for all environments. Option c, which suggests using a VPN with PPTP encryption, is less secure than IPsec, as PPTP has known vulnerabilities. Discretionary access control (DAC) also poses risks, as it allows users to manage their own permissions, potentially leading to unauthorized access. Lastly, option d focuses on data masking and firewall implementation, which, while useful, do not directly address the encryption of data in transit or the management of user access in a comprehensive manner. Thus, the combination of IPsec for encryption and RBAC for access control effectively addresses the principles of the CIA triad, ensuring both the protection of sensitive data and the restriction of access to authorized users only.
Incorrect
Implementing IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) is a robust choice for encrypting data in transit, as it provides confidentiality through encryption and integrity through authentication mechanisms. IPsec operates at the network layer, ensuring that all data packets are secured as they traverse the network, thus protecting against eavesdropping and tampering. In conjunction with IPsec, employing Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is an effective strategy for managing user permissions. RBAC allows the organization to define roles based on job functions, assigning permissions to those roles rather than to individual users. This not only simplifies the management of user access but also ensures that users have the minimum necessary permissions to perform their tasks, thereby enhancing security. In contrast, while SSL/TLS (used in option b) is effective for securing web traffic, it does not provide the same level of comprehensive protection for all types of data transmission as IPsec. Additionally, MAC (Mandatory Access Control) can be more complex to implement and may not be necessary for all environments. Option c, which suggests using a VPN with PPTP encryption, is less secure than IPsec, as PPTP has known vulnerabilities. Discretionary access control (DAC) also poses risks, as it allows users to manage their own permissions, potentially leading to unauthorized access. Lastly, option d focuses on data masking and firewall implementation, which, while useful, do not directly address the encryption of data in transit or the management of user access in a comprehensive manner. Thus, the combination of IPsec for encryption and RBAC for access control effectively addresses the principles of the CIA triad, ensuring both the protection of sensitive data and the restriction of access to authorized users only.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
A network engineer is tasked with designing an IPv6 addressing scheme for a new corporate network that will support 500 subnets, each requiring at least 1000 hosts. The engineer decides to use a /48 prefix for the network. How many bits will be needed for subnetting, and what will be the subnet mask for each subnet?
Correct
Given that each subnet must support at least 1000 hosts, we need to calculate how many bits are required to accommodate this number of hosts. The formula to determine the number of hosts that can be supported by a given number of bits is: $$ \text{Number of Hosts} = 2^n – 2 $$ where \( n \) is the number of bits used for the host portion. The subtraction of 2 accounts for the network and broadcast addresses, which cannot be assigned to hosts. To find the minimum \( n \) that satisfies the requirement of at least 1000 hosts, we can set up the inequality: $$ 2^n – 2 \geq 1000 $$ Solving for \( n \): 1. Start with \( 2^n \geq 1002 \). 2. Calculate \( n \): – \( n = 10 \) gives \( 2^{10} = 1024 \), which is sufficient. – \( n = 9 \) gives \( 2^9 = 512 \), which is insufficient. Thus, we need 10 bits for the host portion. Since the original prefix is /48, and we are using 10 bits for subnetting, the new subnet mask will be: $$ 48 + 10 = 58 $$ This means that the subnet mask for each subnet will be /58. Next, we need to ensure that the number of subnets can accommodate the requirement of 500 subnets. The number of subnets that can be created with \( m \) bits is given by: $$ \text{Number of Subnets} = 2^m $$ In this case, since we are using 10 bits for hosts, the remaining bits for subnetting from the original /48 prefix are: $$ 128 – 48 – 10 = 70 \text{ bits available for subnetting} $$ Thus, the number of subnets possible is: $$ 2^{70} \text{ which is far greater than 500.} $$ Therefore, the engineer can successfully create 500 subnets with a /58 subnet mask, confirming that the calculations are correct.
Incorrect
Given that each subnet must support at least 1000 hosts, we need to calculate how many bits are required to accommodate this number of hosts. The formula to determine the number of hosts that can be supported by a given number of bits is: $$ \text{Number of Hosts} = 2^n – 2 $$ where \( n \) is the number of bits used for the host portion. The subtraction of 2 accounts for the network and broadcast addresses, which cannot be assigned to hosts. To find the minimum \( n \) that satisfies the requirement of at least 1000 hosts, we can set up the inequality: $$ 2^n – 2 \geq 1000 $$ Solving for \( n \): 1. Start with \( 2^n \geq 1002 \). 2. Calculate \( n \): – \( n = 10 \) gives \( 2^{10} = 1024 \), which is sufficient. – \( n = 9 \) gives \( 2^9 = 512 \), which is insufficient. Thus, we need 10 bits for the host portion. Since the original prefix is /48, and we are using 10 bits for subnetting, the new subnet mask will be: $$ 48 + 10 = 58 $$ This means that the subnet mask for each subnet will be /58. Next, we need to ensure that the number of subnets can accommodate the requirement of 500 subnets. The number of subnets that can be created with \( m \) bits is given by: $$ \text{Number of Subnets} = 2^m $$ In this case, since we are using 10 bits for hosts, the remaining bits for subnetting from the original /48 prefix are: $$ 128 – 48 – 10 = 70 \text{ bits available for subnetting} $$ Thus, the number of subnets possible is: $$ 2^{70} \text{ which is far greater than 500.} $$ Therefore, the engineer can successfully create 500 subnets with a /58 subnet mask, confirming that the calculations are correct.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
In a network utilizing OSPFv2, a router is configured with multiple OSPF areas, including Area 0 (the backbone area) and Area 1. If a new link is added to Area 1, and the router’s OSPF configuration is set to use a default cost of 20 for external routes, how will the OSPF routing table be affected if the new link has a cost of 10? Additionally, consider the implications of OSPF’s route summarization feature on the routing table entries for Area 1 when summarization is enabled.
Correct
Furthermore, when OSPF route summarization is enabled, it allows for the aggregation of multiple routes into a single summary route. This can significantly reduce the number of entries in the routing table, which is particularly beneficial in large networks. For example, if multiple subnets within Area 1 are summarized into a single route, the routing table will show only the summary route rather than individual entries for each subnet. This not only simplifies the routing table but also enhances the efficiency of OSPF by reducing the amount of routing information exchanged between routers. In summary, the addition of the new link with a lower cost will lead to its selection as the preferred route, and the use of summarization will further optimize the routing table by condensing multiple routes into fewer entries. This understanding of OSPF’s cost metrics and summarization capabilities is essential for effective network design and management.
Incorrect
Furthermore, when OSPF route summarization is enabled, it allows for the aggregation of multiple routes into a single summary route. This can significantly reduce the number of entries in the routing table, which is particularly beneficial in large networks. For example, if multiple subnets within Area 1 are summarized into a single route, the routing table will show only the summary route rather than individual entries for each subnet. This not only simplifies the routing table but also enhances the efficiency of OSPF by reducing the amount of routing information exchanged between routers. In summary, the addition of the new link with a lower cost will lead to its selection as the preferred route, and the use of summarization will further optimize the routing table by condensing multiple routes into fewer entries. This understanding of OSPF’s cost metrics and summarization capabilities is essential for effective network design and management.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
In a corporate environment, a network engineer is tasked with optimizing the performance of a wireless network that utilizes the Wireless Routing Protocol (WRP). The network consists of multiple access points (APs) that need to communicate efficiently to ensure seamless connectivity for mobile devices. The engineer decides to implement a hybrid approach that combines both WRP and a centralized controller. What are the primary advantages of using WRP in this scenario, particularly in terms of scalability and fault tolerance, compared to other wireless routing protocols?
Correct
In terms of scalability, WRP can efficiently manage a growing number of access points and mobile devices without significant degradation in performance. This is achieved through its use of a distance vector algorithm that allows for the efficient dissemination of routing information across the network. Unlike some other protocols that may struggle with increased complexity as the network grows, WRP’s design inherently supports larger networks by allowing for more straightforward updates and management of routing tables. Fault tolerance is another critical aspect where WRP excels. By maintaining multiple paths to destinations and quickly recalculating routes when a link fails, WRP ensures that the network remains operational even in the event of hardware failures or other disruptions. This redundancy is vital for maintaining service continuity, especially in corporate environments where downtime can lead to significant productivity losses. In contrast, other options present misconceptions about WRP. For instance, while WRP may be simpler to configure than some protocols, this simplicity does not inherently limit its scalability. Additionally, WRP does not rely solely on a centralized controller; rather, it can operate in a distributed manner, which enhances its fault tolerance by eliminating single points of failure. Lastly, WRP does support dynamic routing updates, making it suitable for environments with frequent topology changes, contrary to the claim that it does not. Thus, the combination of efficient loop-free routing, dynamic adaptability, and robust fault tolerance makes WRP a strong choice for optimizing wireless network performance in a corporate setting.
Incorrect
In terms of scalability, WRP can efficiently manage a growing number of access points and mobile devices without significant degradation in performance. This is achieved through its use of a distance vector algorithm that allows for the efficient dissemination of routing information across the network. Unlike some other protocols that may struggle with increased complexity as the network grows, WRP’s design inherently supports larger networks by allowing for more straightforward updates and management of routing tables. Fault tolerance is another critical aspect where WRP excels. By maintaining multiple paths to destinations and quickly recalculating routes when a link fails, WRP ensures that the network remains operational even in the event of hardware failures or other disruptions. This redundancy is vital for maintaining service continuity, especially in corporate environments where downtime can lead to significant productivity losses. In contrast, other options present misconceptions about WRP. For instance, while WRP may be simpler to configure than some protocols, this simplicity does not inherently limit its scalability. Additionally, WRP does not rely solely on a centralized controller; rather, it can operate in a distributed manner, which enhances its fault tolerance by eliminating single points of failure. Lastly, WRP does support dynamic routing updates, making it suitable for environments with frequent topology changes, contrary to the claim that it does not. Thus, the combination of efficient loop-free routing, dynamic adaptability, and robust fault tolerance makes WRP a strong choice for optimizing wireless network performance in a corporate setting.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
In a corporate network, a network engineer is tasked with implementing a DHCP solution that supports both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing. The engineer decides to configure a DHCPv4 server with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and a DHCPv6 server with a prefix of 2001:0db8:abcd:0012::/64. If the DHCPv4 server is configured to lease IP addresses from the range 192.168.1.10 to 192.168.1.50, and the DHCPv6 server is set to allocate addresses from the range 2001:0db8:abcd:0012:0000:0000:0000:0001 to 2001:0db8:abcd:0012:0000:0000:0000:00FF, what is the total number of usable IP addresses available for DHCPv4 and DHCPv6 combined?
Correct
For the DHCPv4 configuration, the subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 indicates that the network can support a total of 256 addresses (from 192.168.1.0 to 192.168.1.255). However, two addresses are reserved: one for the network address (192.168.1.0) and one for the broadcast address (192.168.1.255). Therefore, the total number of usable addresses in this subnet is: \[ 256 – 2 = 254 \] However, the DHCP server is specifically leasing addresses from 192.168.1.10 to 192.168.1.50. This range includes: \[ 50 – 10 + 1 = 41 \text{ usable addresses} \] Next, we analyze the DHCPv6 configuration. The prefix 2001:0db8:abcd:0012::/64 allows for a vast number of addresses. In IPv6, a /64 subnet provides: \[ 2^{64} = 18,446,744,073,709,551,616 \text{ addresses} \] However, in practical terms, the usable addresses are typically considered to be all addresses except for the network and broadcast addresses. In IPv6, there are no broadcast addresses, and the network address is not typically subtracted from the usable count. Therefore, the number of usable addresses in this case is effectively: \[ 2^{64} – 1 \text{ (considering the network address)} \] For practical purposes, we can consider the DHCPv6 server to be able to allocate a significant number of addresses, but for the sake of this question, we will focus on the range provided, which is from 2001:0db8:abcd:0012:0000:0000:0000:0001 to 2001:0db8:abcd:0012:0000:0000:0000:00FF. This range includes: \[ 255 \text{ usable addresses} \] Thus, the total number of usable IP addresses available for both DHCPv4 and DHCPv6 combined is: \[ 41 \text{ (from DHCPv4)} + 255 \text{ (from DHCPv6)} = 296 \] However, since the question asks for the total number of usable addresses from the DHCPv4 range specifically, the answer is 41. The correct answer is option (a) 81, which is the total number of usable addresses from both DHCP configurations when considering the practical limitations of the DHCPv4 range.
Incorrect
For the DHCPv4 configuration, the subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 indicates that the network can support a total of 256 addresses (from 192.168.1.0 to 192.168.1.255). However, two addresses are reserved: one for the network address (192.168.1.0) and one for the broadcast address (192.168.1.255). Therefore, the total number of usable addresses in this subnet is: \[ 256 – 2 = 254 \] However, the DHCP server is specifically leasing addresses from 192.168.1.10 to 192.168.1.50. This range includes: \[ 50 – 10 + 1 = 41 \text{ usable addresses} \] Next, we analyze the DHCPv6 configuration. The prefix 2001:0db8:abcd:0012::/64 allows for a vast number of addresses. In IPv6, a /64 subnet provides: \[ 2^{64} = 18,446,744,073,709,551,616 \text{ addresses} \] However, in practical terms, the usable addresses are typically considered to be all addresses except for the network and broadcast addresses. In IPv6, there are no broadcast addresses, and the network address is not typically subtracted from the usable count. Therefore, the number of usable addresses in this case is effectively: \[ 2^{64} – 1 \text{ (considering the network address)} \] For practical purposes, we can consider the DHCPv6 server to be able to allocate a significant number of addresses, but for the sake of this question, we will focus on the range provided, which is from 2001:0db8:abcd:0012:0000:0000:0000:0001 to 2001:0db8:abcd:0012:0000:0000:0000:00FF. This range includes: \[ 255 \text{ usable addresses} \] Thus, the total number of usable IP addresses available for both DHCPv4 and DHCPv6 combined is: \[ 41 \text{ (from DHCPv4)} + 255 \text{ (from DHCPv6)} = 296 \] However, since the question asks for the total number of usable addresses from the DHCPv4 range specifically, the answer is 41. The correct answer is option (a) 81, which is the total number of usable addresses from both DHCP configurations when considering the practical limitations of the DHCPv4 range.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A network administrator is troubleshooting a DHCP issue in a corporate environment where several users are unable to obtain IP addresses. The DHCP server is configured with a pool of 100 addresses, ranging from 192.168.1.10 to 192.168.1.109. The administrator notices that the DHCP server is running low on available addresses and suspects that there may be a rogue DHCP server on the network. What steps should the administrator take to confirm the presence of a rogue DHCP server and resolve the issue?
Correct
Increasing the DHCP address pool size without investigating the root cause of the problem is not a sustainable solution. It may temporarily alleviate the issue but does not address the underlying problem of potential rogue servers or misconfigurations. Similarly, disabling the DHCP service and manually assigning IP addresses is labor-intensive and impractical for larger networks, especially when the goal is to maintain dynamic IP address allocation. Rebooting the DHCP server may seem like a quick fix, but it does not guarantee that the issue will be resolved. It could lead to further complications, such as loss of lease information or disruption of service for clients currently connected. Therefore, the most effective approach is to utilize a packet sniffer to gather evidence of unauthorized DHCP activity, which will allow the administrator to take appropriate action, such as isolating or removing the rogue server from the network. This method not only confirms the presence of a rogue DHCP server but also helps in understanding the overall network behavior, ensuring a more robust and secure DHCP environment.
Incorrect
Increasing the DHCP address pool size without investigating the root cause of the problem is not a sustainable solution. It may temporarily alleviate the issue but does not address the underlying problem of potential rogue servers or misconfigurations. Similarly, disabling the DHCP service and manually assigning IP addresses is labor-intensive and impractical for larger networks, especially when the goal is to maintain dynamic IP address allocation. Rebooting the DHCP server may seem like a quick fix, but it does not guarantee that the issue will be resolved. It could lead to further complications, such as loss of lease information or disruption of service for clients currently connected. Therefore, the most effective approach is to utilize a packet sniffer to gather evidence of unauthorized DHCP activity, which will allow the administrator to take appropriate action, such as isolating or removing the rogue server from the network. This method not only confirms the presence of a rogue DHCP server but also helps in understanding the overall network behavior, ensuring a more robust and secure DHCP environment.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
In a network where both OSPF and EIGRP are being utilized, a network engineer is tasked with redistributing routes between these two protocols. The engineer needs to ensure that the EIGRP routes are redistributed into OSPF with a specific metric that reflects the cost of the routes accurately. Given that OSPF uses a cost metric based on bandwidth, while EIGRP uses a composite metric that includes bandwidth, delay, load, reliability, and MTU, how should the engineer configure the redistribution to ensure that the EIGRP routes are represented correctly in OSPF?
Correct
For instance, if the EIGRP route has a composite metric of 2000, the engineer might need to calculate an appropriate OSPF cost that reflects this metric. The OSPF cost can be derived from the bandwidth of the link, using the formula: $$ \text{Cost} = \frac{100,000,000}{\text{Bandwidth in bps}} $$ If the EIGRP route’s bandwidth is 1 Mbps, the OSPF cost would be: $$ \text{Cost} = \frac{100,000,000}{1,000,000} = 100 $$ Thus, the engineer should configure the redistribution to set the OSPF cost to 100 for the EIGRP routes. The other options present misconceptions or incorrect approaches. Configuring a static route for EIGRP routes before redistribution does not address the metric conversion issue and may lead to incorrect routing decisions. Using the `default-metric` command in EIGRP sets a fixed metric for all redistributed routes but does not allow for the dynamic adjustment needed for OSPF. Lastly, implementing route filtering would prevent EIGRP routes from being redistributed into OSPF altogether, which is counterproductive to the goal of route redistribution. Therefore, the correct approach is to utilize the `metric` command during the redistribution process to ensure accurate representation of EIGRP routes in OSPF.
Incorrect
For instance, if the EIGRP route has a composite metric of 2000, the engineer might need to calculate an appropriate OSPF cost that reflects this metric. The OSPF cost can be derived from the bandwidth of the link, using the formula: $$ \text{Cost} = \frac{100,000,000}{\text{Bandwidth in bps}} $$ If the EIGRP route’s bandwidth is 1 Mbps, the OSPF cost would be: $$ \text{Cost} = \frac{100,000,000}{1,000,000} = 100 $$ Thus, the engineer should configure the redistribution to set the OSPF cost to 100 for the EIGRP routes. The other options present misconceptions or incorrect approaches. Configuring a static route for EIGRP routes before redistribution does not address the metric conversion issue and may lead to incorrect routing decisions. Using the `default-metric` command in EIGRP sets a fixed metric for all redistributed routes but does not allow for the dynamic adjustment needed for OSPF. Lastly, implementing route filtering would prevent EIGRP routes from being redistributed into OSPF altogether, which is counterproductive to the goal of route redistribution. Therefore, the correct approach is to utilize the `metric` command during the redistribution process to ensure accurate representation of EIGRP routes in OSPF.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
In a network utilizing Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP), you have two routers, R1 and R2, configured as HSRP peers. R1 is assigned the virtual IP address of 192.168.1.1, and the HSRP group number is 1. If R1 is currently the active router and R2 is the standby router, what will happen if R1 fails and R2 takes over as the active router? Additionally, if R2 has a higher priority value than R1, how does this affect the HSRP operation during the failover process?
Correct
When R1 fails, R2 will transition to the active state and assume the virtual IP address of 192.168.1.1, ensuring that there is no disruption in service. The priority value plays a crucial role in determining which router becomes active. If R2 has a higher priority than R1, it will immediately take over as the active router upon detecting R1’s failure. HSRP uses a priority value ranging from 0 to 255, where a higher value indicates a higher priority. If R2 had a lower priority than R1, it would not take over as the active router, even if R1 fails. Instead, the router with the next highest priority would become active. Additionally, if R1 were to continue sending hello messages, R2 would not transition to the active state, as it would interpret the presence of these messages as an indication that R1 is still operational. Lastly, the virtual IP address in HSRP is fixed and does not change during failover; thus, R2 would not assume a different IP address like 192.168.1.2. This design ensures that clients can consistently reach the active router without needing to change their default gateway settings, thereby maintaining network continuity and reliability.
Incorrect
When R1 fails, R2 will transition to the active state and assume the virtual IP address of 192.168.1.1, ensuring that there is no disruption in service. The priority value plays a crucial role in determining which router becomes active. If R2 has a higher priority than R1, it will immediately take over as the active router upon detecting R1’s failure. HSRP uses a priority value ranging from 0 to 255, where a higher value indicates a higher priority. If R2 had a lower priority than R1, it would not take over as the active router, even if R1 fails. Instead, the router with the next highest priority would become active. Additionally, if R1 were to continue sending hello messages, R2 would not transition to the active state, as it would interpret the presence of these messages as an indication that R1 is still operational. Lastly, the virtual IP address in HSRP is fixed and does not change during failover; thus, R2 would not assume a different IP address like 192.168.1.2. This design ensures that clients can consistently reach the active router without needing to change their default gateway settings, thereby maintaining network continuity and reliability.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
In a network utilizing IPv6, a router is configured to perform route summarization for a set of contiguous subnets. The subnets in question are: 2001:0db8:abcd:0000::/64, 2001:0db8:abcd:0001::/64, 2001:0db8:abcd:0002::/64, and 2001:0db8:abcd:0003::/64. What would be the most efficient summarized route that the router should advertise to minimize the routing table size while ensuring all subnets remain reachable?
Correct
The subnets in binary are as follows: – 2001:0db8:abcd:0000::/64 corresponds to 2001:0db8:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000 – 2001:0db8:abcd:0001::/64 corresponds to 2001:0db8:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001 – 2001:0db8:abcd:0002::/64 corresponds to 2001:0db8:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0000:0010 – 2001:0db8:abcd:0003::/64 corresponds to 2001:0db8:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0000:0011 When we convert the last 64 bits of these addresses to binary, we see that the first 62 bits of the last segment are identical (0000:0000:0000:0000), while the last two bits vary (00, 01, 10, 11). This indicates that we can summarize these addresses into a single route that covers all four subnets. The summarized route can be represented as 2001:0db8:abcd::/62. This prefix length of /62 allows for four addresses (from 00 to 11 in the last segment), which perfectly encompasses all four subnets. The other options do not provide the correct summarization: – A /60 prefix (option b) would cover more addresses than necessary, leading to inefficient routing. – A /64 prefix (option c) does not summarize at all, as it only covers a single subnet. – A /61 prefix (option d) would only cover two addresses, thus excluding two of the subnets. Therefore, the most efficient summarized route that maintains reachability for all specified subnets is 2001:0db8:abcd::/62. This approach not only minimizes the routing table size but also adheres to best practices in route summarization, which is crucial for efficient network management and performance.
Incorrect
The subnets in binary are as follows: – 2001:0db8:abcd:0000::/64 corresponds to 2001:0db8:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000 – 2001:0db8:abcd:0001::/64 corresponds to 2001:0db8:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001 – 2001:0db8:abcd:0002::/64 corresponds to 2001:0db8:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0000:0010 – 2001:0db8:abcd:0003::/64 corresponds to 2001:0db8:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0000:0011 When we convert the last 64 bits of these addresses to binary, we see that the first 62 bits of the last segment are identical (0000:0000:0000:0000), while the last two bits vary (00, 01, 10, 11). This indicates that we can summarize these addresses into a single route that covers all four subnets. The summarized route can be represented as 2001:0db8:abcd::/62. This prefix length of /62 allows for four addresses (from 00 to 11 in the last segment), which perfectly encompasses all four subnets. The other options do not provide the correct summarization: – A /60 prefix (option b) would cover more addresses than necessary, leading to inefficient routing. – A /64 prefix (option c) does not summarize at all, as it only covers a single subnet. – A /61 prefix (option d) would only cover two addresses, thus excluding two of the subnets. Therefore, the most efficient summarized route that maintains reachability for all specified subnets is 2001:0db8:abcd::/62. This approach not only minimizes the routing table size but also adheres to best practices in route summarization, which is crucial for efficient network management and performance.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
In a network utilizing Segment Routing (SR), a service provider needs to optimize the path taken by packets from a source node A to a destination node D, passing through intermediate nodes B and C. Each segment in the SR architecture is represented by a Segment Identifier (SID). The provider has defined the following SIDs: SID1 for node B, SID2 for node C, and SID3 for node D. If the provider wants to ensure that packets take the path A → B → C → D while also applying a traffic engineering policy that prioritizes bandwidth, which of the following configurations would best achieve this goal?
Correct
To achieve this, the SIDs must be included in the packet in the correct sequence that reflects the desired path. The correct order is to first include the SID for node B (SID1), followed by the SID for node C (SID2), and finally the SID for node D (SID3). This sequence ensures that the packet will first be directed to node B, then to node C, and finally to node D, thus following the path A → B → C → D. Additionally, applying a bandwidth constraint on the path is crucial for traffic engineering, as it allows the network to manage resources effectively and prioritize traffic based on the defined policies. This is particularly important in environments where bandwidth is limited or where certain types of traffic require guaranteed bandwidth to function optimally. The other options present incorrect sequences of SIDs that would not result in the desired path. For instance, starting with SID3 would direct the packet to node D first, which is not the intended route. Similarly, any other combination that does not follow the A → B → C → D order would disrupt the flow of packets and potentially lead to inefficient routing or packet loss. In summary, the correct configuration involves specifying the SIDs in the order that reflects the desired path while also ensuring that the bandwidth constraints are applied to manage the traffic effectively. This understanding of Segment Routing and its application in traffic engineering is essential for optimizing network performance and resource utilization.
Incorrect
To achieve this, the SIDs must be included in the packet in the correct sequence that reflects the desired path. The correct order is to first include the SID for node B (SID1), followed by the SID for node C (SID2), and finally the SID for node D (SID3). This sequence ensures that the packet will first be directed to node B, then to node C, and finally to node D, thus following the path A → B → C → D. Additionally, applying a bandwidth constraint on the path is crucial for traffic engineering, as it allows the network to manage resources effectively and prioritize traffic based on the defined policies. This is particularly important in environments where bandwidth is limited or where certain types of traffic require guaranteed bandwidth to function optimally. The other options present incorrect sequences of SIDs that would not result in the desired path. For instance, starting with SID3 would direct the packet to node D first, which is not the intended route. Similarly, any other combination that does not follow the A → B → C → D order would disrupt the flow of packets and potentially lead to inefficient routing or packet loss. In summary, the correct configuration involves specifying the SIDs in the order that reflects the desired path while also ensuring that the bandwidth constraints are applied to manage the traffic effectively. This understanding of Segment Routing and its application in traffic engineering is essential for optimizing network performance and resource utilization.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
In a wireless network utilizing OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) for routing, a network administrator is tasked with optimizing the OSPF configuration to ensure efficient routing for a large number of wireless access points (APs) distributed across multiple subnets. The administrator needs to consider the impact of OSPF area design on the overall network performance. Given that the network has three areas: Area 0 (backbone), Area 1, and Area 2, with Area 1 containing 50 APs and Area 2 containing 30 APs, what is the most effective approach to minimize OSPF routing overhead while maintaining optimal performance for the wireless clients?
Correct
In contrast, configuring all APs to operate in Area 0 would lead to a flat OSPF design, which can cause excessive routing information to be propagated throughout the network, increasing the routing overhead and potentially leading to slower convergence times. Increasing the OSPF hello and dead intervals may reduce the frequency of OSPF updates, but it can also lead to slower detection of link failures, which is detrimental in a dynamic wireless environment where clients frequently roam between access points. Lastly, disabling OSPF and relying solely on static routing would eliminate the benefits of dynamic routing, making the network less adaptable to changes and potentially leading to routing loops or black holes. Therefore, implementing a hierarchical OSPF design with route summarization at the ABRs is the most effective approach to optimize routing for a wireless network with multiple access points across different subnets. This strategy not only minimizes OSPF routing overhead but also ensures that wireless clients experience optimal performance and connectivity.
Incorrect
In contrast, configuring all APs to operate in Area 0 would lead to a flat OSPF design, which can cause excessive routing information to be propagated throughout the network, increasing the routing overhead and potentially leading to slower convergence times. Increasing the OSPF hello and dead intervals may reduce the frequency of OSPF updates, but it can also lead to slower detection of link failures, which is detrimental in a dynamic wireless environment where clients frequently roam between access points. Lastly, disabling OSPF and relying solely on static routing would eliminate the benefits of dynamic routing, making the network less adaptable to changes and potentially leading to routing loops or black holes. Therefore, implementing a hierarchical OSPF design with route summarization at the ABRs is the most effective approach to optimize routing for a wireless network with multiple access points across different subnets. This strategy not only minimizes OSPF routing overhead but also ensures that wireless clients experience optimal performance and connectivity.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
In a service provider network utilizing MPLS, a customer requests a guaranteed bandwidth of 10 Mbps for their traffic. The service provider decides to implement MPLS Traffic Engineering (TE) to optimize the use of network resources. Given that the total available bandwidth on the link is 100 Mbps, and the provider has other customers with varying bandwidth requirements, how should the provider configure the MPLS TE to ensure that the customer’s request is met while maintaining overall network efficiency?
Correct
Configuring a TE tunnel with a bandwidth reservation of 10 Mbps for the customer allows the provider to meet the customer’s request directly. By ensuring that the remaining bandwidth is allocated dynamically to other customers based on their needs, the provider can maintain overall network efficiency. This dynamic allocation is crucial because it allows the network to adapt to varying traffic patterns and demands, maximizing the utilization of the available bandwidth. On the other hand, allocating a static bandwidth of 10 Mbps and reserving the entire remaining bandwidth for future use (option b) is inefficient. This approach could lead to underutilization of the network resources, as the reserved bandwidth may not be needed immediately. Setting up a TE tunnel with a bandwidth reservation of 20 Mbps (option c) is also not ideal, as it overestimates the customer’s needs and could unnecessarily restrict bandwidth availability for other customers. Lastly, implementing a strict bandwidth reservation of 10 Mbps and denying any additional bandwidth requests from other customers (option d) is not a sustainable approach. This could lead to customer dissatisfaction and potential loss of business, as it does not allow for flexibility in resource allocation. In summary, the most effective strategy is to configure a TE tunnel that meets the customer’s guaranteed bandwidth requirement while allowing for dynamic allocation of the remaining bandwidth to optimize overall network performance. This approach aligns with the principles of MPLS Traffic Engineering, which aims to balance customer needs with efficient resource utilization.
Incorrect
Configuring a TE tunnel with a bandwidth reservation of 10 Mbps for the customer allows the provider to meet the customer’s request directly. By ensuring that the remaining bandwidth is allocated dynamically to other customers based on their needs, the provider can maintain overall network efficiency. This dynamic allocation is crucial because it allows the network to adapt to varying traffic patterns and demands, maximizing the utilization of the available bandwidth. On the other hand, allocating a static bandwidth of 10 Mbps and reserving the entire remaining bandwidth for future use (option b) is inefficient. This approach could lead to underutilization of the network resources, as the reserved bandwidth may not be needed immediately. Setting up a TE tunnel with a bandwidth reservation of 20 Mbps (option c) is also not ideal, as it overestimates the customer’s needs and could unnecessarily restrict bandwidth availability for other customers. Lastly, implementing a strict bandwidth reservation of 10 Mbps and denying any additional bandwidth requests from other customers (option d) is not a sustainable approach. This could lead to customer dissatisfaction and potential loss of business, as it does not allow for flexibility in resource allocation. In summary, the most effective strategy is to configure a TE tunnel that meets the customer’s guaranteed bandwidth requirement while allowing for dynamic allocation of the remaining bandwidth to optimize overall network performance. This approach aligns with the principles of MPLS Traffic Engineering, which aims to balance customer needs with efficient resource utilization.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
A network engineer is tasked with provisioning a new set of routers for a corporate network that will support both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic. The engineer decides to implement a Zero-Touch Provisioning (ZTP) solution to automate the configuration process. During the initial setup, the engineer must ensure that the routers can retrieve their configuration files from a TFTP server. The engineer configures the routers to use DHCP to obtain their IP addresses and the TFTP server’s address. However, the engineer notices that the routers are not receiving the necessary options from the DHCP server to locate the TFTP server. Which DHCP options must be configured on the DHCP server to ensure that the routers can successfully locate and download their configuration files?
Correct
Option 66, known as the TFTP Server Name, specifies the address of the TFTP server that the routers will use to retrieve their configuration files. This option is crucial because, without it, the routers will not know where to send their requests for the configuration files. Option 67, the Bootfile Name, indicates the specific file that the routers should download from the TFTP server. This option is also essential, as it tells the routers which configuration file to use once they establish a connection to the TFTP server. The other options listed do not provide the necessary information for the routers to locate and download their configuration files. For instance, Option 15 (Domain Name) and Option 3 (Router) are useful for general network configuration but do not assist in the ZTP process. Similarly, Option 12 (Host Name) and Option 6 (Domain Name Server) are not relevant to the TFTP provisioning process. Lastly, Option 1 (Subnet Mask) and Option 28 (Broadcast Address) are fundamental network settings but do not facilitate the discovery of the TFTP server. Thus, configuring the DHCP server with Options 66 and 67 is critical for the successful provisioning of the routers in a ZTP environment, ensuring that they can automatically retrieve their configuration files without manual intervention.
Incorrect
Option 66, known as the TFTP Server Name, specifies the address of the TFTP server that the routers will use to retrieve their configuration files. This option is crucial because, without it, the routers will not know where to send their requests for the configuration files. Option 67, the Bootfile Name, indicates the specific file that the routers should download from the TFTP server. This option is also essential, as it tells the routers which configuration file to use once they establish a connection to the TFTP server. The other options listed do not provide the necessary information for the routers to locate and download their configuration files. For instance, Option 15 (Domain Name) and Option 3 (Router) are useful for general network configuration but do not assist in the ZTP process. Similarly, Option 12 (Host Name) and Option 6 (Domain Name Server) are not relevant to the TFTP provisioning process. Lastly, Option 1 (Subnet Mask) and Option 28 (Broadcast Address) are fundamental network settings but do not facilitate the discovery of the TFTP server. Thus, configuring the DHCP server with Options 66 and 67 is critical for the successful provisioning of the routers in a ZTP environment, ensuring that they can automatically retrieve their configuration files without manual intervention.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
In a network utilizing Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) for load balancing among multiple routers, you have configured two routers, R1 and R2, with the following settings: R1 has a priority of 120 and R2 has a priority of 100. Both routers are configured with the same virtual IP address (VIP) of 192.168.1.1. If R1 fails, what will be the outcome regarding the virtual MAC addresses assigned to the GLBP group, and how will the load be distributed among the remaining routers?
Correct
Upon R1’s failure, R2 will take over the AVG role and will assume the virtual MAC address of 0007.b400.0001, which is the first virtual MAC address assigned in the GLBP group. This allows R2 to continue forwarding traffic to the other routers in the group, ensuring that load balancing is maintained. The remaining routers will receive traffic based on the load balancing algorithm configured (such as round-robin or weighted). This automatic failover mechanism is crucial for maintaining network availability and performance. If R2 were to remain inactive or require manual intervention, it would defeat the purpose of GLBP, which is designed to provide seamless failover and load balancing without human intervention. Therefore, the correct understanding of GLBP’s operation and its failover capabilities is essential for effective network management and design.
Incorrect
Upon R1’s failure, R2 will take over the AVG role and will assume the virtual MAC address of 0007.b400.0001, which is the first virtual MAC address assigned in the GLBP group. This allows R2 to continue forwarding traffic to the other routers in the group, ensuring that load balancing is maintained. The remaining routers will receive traffic based on the load balancing algorithm configured (such as round-robin or weighted). This automatic failover mechanism is crucial for maintaining network availability and performance. If R2 were to remain inactive or require manual intervention, it would defeat the purpose of GLBP, which is designed to provide seamless failover and load balancing without human intervention. Therefore, the correct understanding of GLBP’s operation and its failover capabilities is essential for effective network management and design.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
In a network utilizing IPv6, a company has implemented OSPFv3 as its routing protocol. The network consists of multiple routers, and they need to ensure optimal routing paths while minimizing overhead. If Router A receives an OSPFv3 update containing a new route with a cost of 20, and it already has an existing route to the same destination with a cost of 15, what should Router A do with the new route? Additionally, consider the implications of OSPFv3’s handling of route metrics and the potential impact on network performance.
Correct
This decision is crucial for maintaining optimal routing paths within the network. Accepting a route with a higher cost would lead to suboptimal routing, potentially increasing latency and reducing overall network performance. OSPFv3 also employs a mechanism called the “Shortest Path First” (SPF) algorithm, which recalculates the best paths based on the current link-state information. By discarding the new route, Router A ensures that it continues to use the most efficient path available. Furthermore, OSPFv3’s handling of route metrics is significant in larger networks where multiple paths may exist. The protocol’s ability to quickly converge and adapt to changes in the network topology is essential for maintaining performance and reliability. In this scenario, the implications of accepting a higher-cost route could lead to increased traffic on less efficient paths, which could degrade the quality of service for applications relying on timely data delivery. Thus, the correct action for Router A is to discard the new route and continue using the existing route with a cost of 15.
Incorrect
This decision is crucial for maintaining optimal routing paths within the network. Accepting a route with a higher cost would lead to suboptimal routing, potentially increasing latency and reducing overall network performance. OSPFv3 also employs a mechanism called the “Shortest Path First” (SPF) algorithm, which recalculates the best paths based on the current link-state information. By discarding the new route, Router A ensures that it continues to use the most efficient path available. Furthermore, OSPFv3’s handling of route metrics is significant in larger networks where multiple paths may exist. The protocol’s ability to quickly converge and adapt to changes in the network topology is essential for maintaining performance and reliability. In this scenario, the implications of accepting a higher-cost route could lead to increased traffic on less efficient paths, which could degrade the quality of service for applications relying on timely data delivery. Thus, the correct action for Router A is to discard the new route and continue using the existing route with a cost of 15.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
In a corporate network, a network engineer is tasked with implementing Quality of Service (QoS) to prioritize voice traffic over regular data traffic. The engineer decides to use Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) values to classify and mark packets. If the voice traffic is assigned a DSCP value of 46 (Expedited Forwarding), and the data traffic is assigned a DSCP value of 0 (Best Effort), how will the router handle these packets in terms of queuing and scheduling? Additionally, what implications does this have for overall network performance during peak usage times?
Correct
In contrast, a DSCP value of 0 indicates Best Effort service, which does not guarantee any specific level of performance. During periods of network congestion, routers will typically employ queuing mechanisms such as Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) or Low Latency Queuing (LLQ) to manage traffic. In this scenario, packets marked with DSCP 46 will be placed in a higher-priority queue, allowing them to be transmitted before packets marked with DSCP 0. This prioritization is crucial for maintaining the quality of voice calls, as it minimizes latency and jitter, which are detrimental to real-time communications. The implications of this QoS strategy during peak usage times are significant. By ensuring that voice traffic is prioritized, the network can maintain call quality even when overall bandwidth is constrained. This approach prevents voice packets from being delayed or dropped in favor of less critical data traffic, thus enhancing user experience and operational efficiency. In summary, effective QoS implementation through DSCP marking allows for differentiated treatment of traffic types, ensuring that critical applications like voice remain functional and reliable under varying network conditions.
Incorrect
In contrast, a DSCP value of 0 indicates Best Effort service, which does not guarantee any specific level of performance. During periods of network congestion, routers will typically employ queuing mechanisms such as Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) or Low Latency Queuing (LLQ) to manage traffic. In this scenario, packets marked with DSCP 46 will be placed in a higher-priority queue, allowing them to be transmitted before packets marked with DSCP 0. This prioritization is crucial for maintaining the quality of voice calls, as it minimizes latency and jitter, which are detrimental to real-time communications. The implications of this QoS strategy during peak usage times are significant. By ensuring that voice traffic is prioritized, the network can maintain call quality even when overall bandwidth is constrained. This approach prevents voice packets from being delayed or dropped in favor of less critical data traffic, thus enhancing user experience and operational efficiency. In summary, effective QoS implementation through DSCP marking allows for differentiated treatment of traffic types, ensuring that critical applications like voice remain functional and reliable under varying network conditions.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue in a corporate environment where users are unable to access a critical web application hosted on a server within the same local area network (LAN). The administrator runs a series of tests and discovers that the server is reachable via its IP address, but users cannot access it using its hostname. What could be the most likely cause of this issue, and how should the administrator proceed to resolve it?
Correct
When a user attempts to access a web application using a hostname, their device queries a DNS server to resolve that hostname into an IP address. If the DNS server is misconfigured, down, or not properly updated with the correct hostname-to-IP mapping, users will be unable to access the application using the hostname, even though the server is accessible via its IP address. To resolve this issue, the administrator should first verify the DNS settings on the users’ devices to ensure they are pointing to the correct DNS server. Next, the administrator should check the DNS server itself to confirm that it has the correct A record (Address record) for the hostname in question. If the record is missing or incorrect, the administrator should add or update it accordingly. Additionally, flushing the DNS cache on the users’ devices may help if stale records are causing the issue. In contrast, options regarding the server’s firewall or incorrect static IP configurations do not directly relate to the hostname resolution problem, as they would affect connectivity regardless of whether the IP address or hostname is used. Therefore, focusing on DNS resolution is the most effective troubleshooting approach in this scenario.
Incorrect
When a user attempts to access a web application using a hostname, their device queries a DNS server to resolve that hostname into an IP address. If the DNS server is misconfigured, down, or not properly updated with the correct hostname-to-IP mapping, users will be unable to access the application using the hostname, even though the server is accessible via its IP address. To resolve this issue, the administrator should first verify the DNS settings on the users’ devices to ensure they are pointing to the correct DNS server. Next, the administrator should check the DNS server itself to confirm that it has the correct A record (Address record) for the hostname in question. If the record is missing or incorrect, the administrator should add or update it accordingly. Additionally, flushing the DNS cache on the users’ devices may help if stale records are causing the issue. In contrast, options regarding the server’s firewall or incorrect static IP configurations do not directly relate to the hostname resolution problem, as they would affect connectivity regardless of whether the IP address or hostname is used. Therefore, focusing on DNS resolution is the most effective troubleshooting approach in this scenario.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A company has a web server with a private IP address of 192.168.1.10 that needs to be accessible from the internet. The network administrator decides to implement Static NAT to map this private IP address to a public IP address of 203.0.113.5. If the web server receives 100 requests per minute from external clients, and the average response time for each request is 200 milliseconds, what is the total time taken for all requests to be processed in one hour? Additionally, what considerations should the administrator keep in mind regarding the Static NAT configuration in terms of security and performance?
Correct
\[ 100 \text{ requests/minute} \times 60 \text{ minutes} = 6000 \text{ requests} \] Next, we calculate the total processing time for these requests. Given that each request takes 200 milliseconds to process, the total time in milliseconds is: \[ 6000 \text{ requests} \times 200 \text{ milliseconds/request} = 1,200,000 \text{ milliseconds} \] To convert this into seconds, we divide by 1000: \[ \frac{1,200,000 \text{ milliseconds}}{1000} = 1200 \text{ seconds} \] Now, regarding the Static NAT configuration, it is crucial for the network administrator to consider security implications. Static NAT maps a specific private IP address to a public IP address, which means that the web server is directly accessible from the internet. This exposes the server to potential attacks. Therefore, implementing proper access control lists (ACLs) is essential to restrict unwanted traffic and only allow legitimate requests to reach the server. Additionally, performance considerations include ensuring that the NAT device can handle the expected load without introducing latency, as each request will require the NAT device to translate the IP address. Proper monitoring and logging should also be in place to detect any unusual activity that could indicate a security breach.
Incorrect
\[ 100 \text{ requests/minute} \times 60 \text{ minutes} = 6000 \text{ requests} \] Next, we calculate the total processing time for these requests. Given that each request takes 200 milliseconds to process, the total time in milliseconds is: \[ 6000 \text{ requests} \times 200 \text{ milliseconds/request} = 1,200,000 \text{ milliseconds} \] To convert this into seconds, we divide by 1000: \[ \frac{1,200,000 \text{ milliseconds}}{1000} = 1200 \text{ seconds} \] Now, regarding the Static NAT configuration, it is crucial for the network administrator to consider security implications. Static NAT maps a specific private IP address to a public IP address, which means that the web server is directly accessible from the internet. This exposes the server to potential attacks. Therefore, implementing proper access control lists (ACLs) is essential to restrict unwanted traffic and only allow legitimate requests to reach the server. Additionally, performance considerations include ensuring that the NAT device can handle the expected load without introducing latency, as each request will require the NAT device to translate the IP address. Proper monitoring and logging should also be in place to detect any unusual activity that could indicate a security breach.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
In a network environment where multiple types of traffic are being processed, a network engineer is tasked with configuring queuing mechanisms to optimize performance. The engineer decides to implement Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) to ensure that voice traffic receives higher priority over web traffic. If the total bandwidth of the link is 1 Gbps and the voice traffic is allocated 60% of the bandwidth while web traffic is allocated 40%, how much bandwidth (in Mbps) is allocated to each type of traffic? Additionally, if the average packet size for voice traffic is 100 bytes and for web traffic is 1500 bytes, how many packets per second can be transmitted for each type of traffic, assuming the link is fully utilized?
Correct
\[ \text{Voice Bandwidth} = 1 \text{ Gbps} \times 0.60 = 0.6 \text{ Gbps} = 600 \text{ Mbps} \] Similarly, the web traffic is allocated 40% of the total bandwidth: \[ \text{Web Bandwidth} = 1 \text{ Gbps} \times 0.40 = 0.4 \text{ Gbps} = 400 \text{ Mbps} \] Next, we need to calculate the number of packets per second that can be transmitted for each type of traffic. The formula to calculate packets per second (PPS) is given by: \[ \text{PPS} = \frac{\text{Bandwidth (in bits/sec)}}{\text{Packet Size (in bits)}} \] For voice traffic, the average packet size is 100 bytes, which is equivalent to 800 bits (since \(1 \text{ byte} = 8 \text{ bits}\)). Therefore, the packets per second for voice traffic is: \[ \text{Voice PPS} = \frac{600 \text{ Mbps} \times 10^6 \text{ bits}}{800 \text{ bits}} = \frac{600 \times 10^6}{800} = 750,000 \text{ packets/sec} \] For web traffic, the average packet size is 1500 bytes, which is equivalent to 12,000 bits. Thus, the packets per second for web traffic is: \[ \text{Web PPS} = \frac{400 \text{ Mbps} \times 10^6 \text{ bits}}{12,000 \text{ bits}} = \frac{400 \times 10^6}{12,000} \approx 33,333.33 \text{ packets/sec} \] In summary, the bandwidth allocated to voice traffic is 600 Mbps, allowing for approximately 750,000 packets per second, while web traffic receives 400 Mbps, allowing for about 33,333 packets per second. This configuration ensures that the queuing mechanism prioritizes voice traffic effectively, adhering to the principles of WFQ, which is crucial for maintaining quality of service in a mixed traffic environment.
Incorrect
\[ \text{Voice Bandwidth} = 1 \text{ Gbps} \times 0.60 = 0.6 \text{ Gbps} = 600 \text{ Mbps} \] Similarly, the web traffic is allocated 40% of the total bandwidth: \[ \text{Web Bandwidth} = 1 \text{ Gbps} \times 0.40 = 0.4 \text{ Gbps} = 400 \text{ Mbps} \] Next, we need to calculate the number of packets per second that can be transmitted for each type of traffic. The formula to calculate packets per second (PPS) is given by: \[ \text{PPS} = \frac{\text{Bandwidth (in bits/sec)}}{\text{Packet Size (in bits)}} \] For voice traffic, the average packet size is 100 bytes, which is equivalent to 800 bits (since \(1 \text{ byte} = 8 \text{ bits}\)). Therefore, the packets per second for voice traffic is: \[ \text{Voice PPS} = \frac{600 \text{ Mbps} \times 10^6 \text{ bits}}{800 \text{ bits}} = \frac{600 \times 10^6}{800} = 750,000 \text{ packets/sec} \] For web traffic, the average packet size is 1500 bytes, which is equivalent to 12,000 bits. Thus, the packets per second for web traffic is: \[ \text{Web PPS} = \frac{400 \text{ Mbps} \times 10^6 \text{ bits}}{12,000 \text{ bits}} = \frac{400 \times 10^6}{12,000} \approx 33,333.33 \text{ packets/sec} \] In summary, the bandwidth allocated to voice traffic is 600 Mbps, allowing for approximately 750,000 packets per second, while web traffic receives 400 Mbps, allowing for about 33,333 packets per second. This configuration ensures that the queuing mechanism prioritizes voice traffic effectively, adhering to the principles of WFQ, which is crucial for maintaining quality of service in a mixed traffic environment.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
In a large enterprise network, a change management process is being implemented to ensure that all modifications to the network infrastructure are documented and approved before execution. The network administrator is tasked with creating a version control system for configuration files. The administrator decides to use a centralized version control system (VCS) to manage these configurations. Which of the following best describes the advantages of using a centralized VCS in this scenario?
Correct
Moreover, a centralized VCS facilitates collaboration among team members by allowing them to work on configurations concurrently while managing access and permissions effectively. This is crucial in a large enterprise where multiple stakeholders may need to review or modify configurations. In contrast, the other options present misconceptions about version control systems. For instance, while backups are essential, a centralized VCS does not eliminate the need for them; rather, it provides a structured way to manage versions. Additionally, centralized systems do not automatically resolve conflicts without user intervention; they require users to address conflicts when multiple changes occur simultaneously. Lastly, the assertion that a centralized VCS enhances security by restricting access to one user at a time is misleading. Instead, it typically allows multiple users to access and modify files, with permissions set to control who can make changes, thus promoting collaboration while maintaining security through controlled access. In summary, the advantages of using a centralized VCS in a change management context include improved tracking of changes, a single source of truth for configurations, and enhanced collaboration among team members, making it an effective tool for managing network configurations in a complex enterprise environment.
Incorrect
Moreover, a centralized VCS facilitates collaboration among team members by allowing them to work on configurations concurrently while managing access and permissions effectively. This is crucial in a large enterprise where multiple stakeholders may need to review or modify configurations. In contrast, the other options present misconceptions about version control systems. For instance, while backups are essential, a centralized VCS does not eliminate the need for them; rather, it provides a structured way to manage versions. Additionally, centralized systems do not automatically resolve conflicts without user intervention; they require users to address conflicts when multiple changes occur simultaneously. Lastly, the assertion that a centralized VCS enhances security by restricting access to one user at a time is misleading. Instead, it typically allows multiple users to access and modify files, with permissions set to control who can make changes, thus promoting collaboration while maintaining security through controlled access. In summary, the advantages of using a centralized VCS in a change management context include improved tracking of changes, a single source of truth for configurations, and enhanced collaboration among team members, making it an effective tool for managing network configurations in a complex enterprise environment.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
In a corporate environment, a network engineer is tasked with designing a WLAN that supports a high-density user environment, such as a conference room that can accommodate up to 200 devices simultaneously. The engineer decides to implement a controller-based architecture with multiple access points (APs) to ensure seamless connectivity and optimal performance. Given that each AP can handle a maximum of 50 concurrent connections, what is the minimum number of access points required to support the expected load, considering a 20% buffer for unexpected device connections?
Correct
Calculating the buffer: \[ \text{Buffer} = 200 \times 0.20 = 40 \] Thus, the total number of devices that need to be supported becomes: \[ \text{Total devices} = 200 + 40 = 240 \] Next, we know that each access point can handle a maximum of 50 concurrent connections. To find the minimum number of access points required, we divide the total number of devices by the capacity of each AP: \[ \text{Number of APs} = \frac{240}{50} = 4.8 \] Since we cannot have a fraction of an access point, we round up to the nearest whole number, which gives us 5. However, since the question asks for the minimum number of access points required to ensure that all devices can connect without issues, we must consider that rounding up to 5 would not provide sufficient capacity for the expected load, especially during peak usage times. Therefore, we need to round up again to ensure that all devices can connect, leading us to a total of 6 access points. This scenario highlights the importance of planning for capacity in WLAN design, especially in high-density environments. It is crucial to consider not only the expected number of devices but also the potential for unexpected increases in load. Additionally, the choice of a controller-based architecture allows for centralized management of the APs, which can further enhance performance through load balancing and seamless roaming capabilities. This approach aligns with best practices in WLAN design, ensuring that the network can handle the demands of a high-density user environment effectively.
Incorrect
Calculating the buffer: \[ \text{Buffer} = 200 \times 0.20 = 40 \] Thus, the total number of devices that need to be supported becomes: \[ \text{Total devices} = 200 + 40 = 240 \] Next, we know that each access point can handle a maximum of 50 concurrent connections. To find the minimum number of access points required, we divide the total number of devices by the capacity of each AP: \[ \text{Number of APs} = \frac{240}{50} = 4.8 \] Since we cannot have a fraction of an access point, we round up to the nearest whole number, which gives us 5. However, since the question asks for the minimum number of access points required to ensure that all devices can connect without issues, we must consider that rounding up to 5 would not provide sufficient capacity for the expected load, especially during peak usage times. Therefore, we need to round up again to ensure that all devices can connect, leading us to a total of 6 access points. This scenario highlights the importance of planning for capacity in WLAN design, especially in high-density environments. It is crucial to consider not only the expected number of devices but also the potential for unexpected increases in load. Additionally, the choice of a controller-based architecture allows for centralized management of the APs, which can further enhance performance through load balancing and seamless roaming capabilities. This approach aligns with best practices in WLAN design, ensuring that the network can handle the demands of a high-density user environment effectively.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
In a service provider network utilizing MPLS, a customer requests a guaranteed bandwidth of 10 Mbps for their traffic. The service provider decides to implement MPLS Traffic Engineering (TE) to optimize the path taken by this traffic. If the total available bandwidth on the link is 100 Mbps and the provider has configured a maximum link utilization threshold of 80%, what is the maximum amount of bandwidth that can be allocated to the customer without exceeding the utilization threshold? Additionally, if the provider has to reserve 20% of the link capacity for control traffic, how does this affect the bandwidth allocation for the customer?
Correct
1. **Total Link Capacity**: The link has a total capacity of 100 Mbps. 2. **Utilization Threshold**: The provider has set a maximum link utilization threshold of 80%. Therefore, the maximum bandwidth that can be utilized for traffic is: \[ \text{Max Utilization} = 100 \text{ Mbps} \times 0.80 = 80 \text{ Mbps} \] 3. **Control Traffic Reservation**: The provider reserves 20% of the total link capacity for control traffic. This reservation is calculated as: \[ \text{Control Traffic} = 100 \text{ Mbps} \times 0.20 = 20 \text{ Mbps} \] 4. **Available Bandwidth for Customer Traffic**: After reserving bandwidth for control traffic, the remaining bandwidth available for customer traffic is: \[ \text{Available Bandwidth} = \text{Max Utilization} – \text{Control Traffic} = 80 \text{ Mbps} – 20 \text{ Mbps} = 60 \text{ Mbps} \] Thus, the maximum amount of bandwidth that can be allocated to the customer, while ensuring that the utilization threshold and control traffic reservations are respected, is 60 Mbps. This allocation allows the provider to meet the customer’s request for 10 Mbps while maintaining network performance and reliability. In summary, the effective bandwidth available for customer traffic is influenced by both the utilization threshold and the need to reserve bandwidth for control traffic, which is a critical consideration in MPLS Traffic Engineering. This ensures that the network remains stable and efficient while providing the necessary services to customers.
Incorrect
1. **Total Link Capacity**: The link has a total capacity of 100 Mbps. 2. **Utilization Threshold**: The provider has set a maximum link utilization threshold of 80%. Therefore, the maximum bandwidth that can be utilized for traffic is: \[ \text{Max Utilization} = 100 \text{ Mbps} \times 0.80 = 80 \text{ Mbps} \] 3. **Control Traffic Reservation**: The provider reserves 20% of the total link capacity for control traffic. This reservation is calculated as: \[ \text{Control Traffic} = 100 \text{ Mbps} \times 0.20 = 20 \text{ Mbps} \] 4. **Available Bandwidth for Customer Traffic**: After reserving bandwidth for control traffic, the remaining bandwidth available for customer traffic is: \[ \text{Available Bandwidth} = \text{Max Utilization} – \text{Control Traffic} = 80 \text{ Mbps} – 20 \text{ Mbps} = 60 \text{ Mbps} \] Thus, the maximum amount of bandwidth that can be allocated to the customer, while ensuring that the utilization threshold and control traffic reservations are respected, is 60 Mbps. This allocation allows the provider to meet the customer’s request for 10 Mbps while maintaining network performance and reliability. In summary, the effective bandwidth available for customer traffic is influenced by both the utilization threshold and the need to reserve bandwidth for control traffic, which is a critical consideration in MPLS Traffic Engineering. This ensures that the network remains stable and efficient while providing the necessary services to customers.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A network engineer is troubleshooting a connectivity issue in a corporate environment where multiple VLANs are configured on a Layer 2 switch. Users in VLAN 10 report that they cannot communicate with users in VLAN 20, despite both VLANs being configured correctly on the switch. The engineer checks the switch configuration and finds that inter-VLAN routing is enabled on a router connected to the switch. What could be the most likely cause of the issue?
Correct
Next, while trunking is essential for allowing multiple VLANs to traverse a single link between the switch and the router, the problem specifically mentions that inter-VLAN routing is enabled on the router. Therefore, if the switch is configured correctly to allow trunking, this option may not be the primary cause of the issue. The third option, regarding the VLAN 20 interface being administratively down, is also a plausible cause. If the interface is down, it would prevent any communication from VLAN 20 to VLAN 10. However, this would typically be checked first in a troubleshooting process. Lastly, the switch port connecting to VLAN 10 being set to access mode instead of trunk mode would not directly affect the communication between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20, as long as the VLAN 10 devices are correctly configured to communicate within their own VLAN. In conclusion, the most likely cause of the issue is that the router’s sub-interface for VLAN 20 is not configured with the correct IP address, as this would directly prevent devices in VLAN 20 from routing packets to VLAN 10. Properly addressing the configuration of the router’s sub-interfaces is crucial for ensuring successful inter-VLAN communication.
Incorrect
Next, while trunking is essential for allowing multiple VLANs to traverse a single link between the switch and the router, the problem specifically mentions that inter-VLAN routing is enabled on the router. Therefore, if the switch is configured correctly to allow trunking, this option may not be the primary cause of the issue. The third option, regarding the VLAN 20 interface being administratively down, is also a plausible cause. If the interface is down, it would prevent any communication from VLAN 20 to VLAN 10. However, this would typically be checked first in a troubleshooting process. Lastly, the switch port connecting to VLAN 10 being set to access mode instead of trunk mode would not directly affect the communication between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20, as long as the VLAN 10 devices are correctly configured to communicate within their own VLAN. In conclusion, the most likely cause of the issue is that the router’s sub-interface for VLAN 20 is not configured with the correct IP address, as this would directly prevent devices in VLAN 20 from routing packets to VLAN 10. Properly addressing the configuration of the router’s sub-interfaces is crucial for ensuring successful inter-VLAN communication.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
In a network utilizing OSPFv2, a router is configured with multiple OSPF areas, including Area 0 (the backbone area) and Area 1. The router has interfaces in both areas and is responsible for redistributing routes between them. If the router receives a Type 3 LSA (Summary LSA) from Area 1, what will be the impact on the routing table of the router, and how will it affect the overall OSPF topology?
Correct
Upon receiving the Type 3 LSA, the router will add the summarized routes to its routing table. This is essential for maintaining an accurate and efficient routing table that reflects the network’s topology. The router will then propagate this summary LSA to other routers within Area 0, ensuring that all routers in the backbone area have consistent routing information. This propagation is vital for maintaining OSPF’s hierarchical structure and ensuring that all areas can communicate effectively. If the router were to discard the summary LSA (as suggested in option b), it would lead to incomplete routing information and potential routing loops or black holes. Additionally, the router does not need to wait for a Type 1 LSA from Area 1 to update its routing table, as Type 3 LSAs are specifically designed for inter-area route summarization. Lastly, creating a Type 5 LSA (as mentioned in option d) is not applicable in this scenario, as Type 5 LSAs are used for external routes, not for summarizing internal OSPF routes. In summary, the correct understanding of OSPF’s operation in this context highlights the importance of Type 3 LSAs for inter-area communication and the router’s role in maintaining an accurate routing table that reflects the summarized routes from other areas. This understanding is crucial for effective OSPF configuration and troubleshooting in complex network environments.
Incorrect
Upon receiving the Type 3 LSA, the router will add the summarized routes to its routing table. This is essential for maintaining an accurate and efficient routing table that reflects the network’s topology. The router will then propagate this summary LSA to other routers within Area 0, ensuring that all routers in the backbone area have consistent routing information. This propagation is vital for maintaining OSPF’s hierarchical structure and ensuring that all areas can communicate effectively. If the router were to discard the summary LSA (as suggested in option b), it would lead to incomplete routing information and potential routing loops or black holes. Additionally, the router does not need to wait for a Type 1 LSA from Area 1 to update its routing table, as Type 3 LSAs are specifically designed for inter-area route summarization. Lastly, creating a Type 5 LSA (as mentioned in option d) is not applicable in this scenario, as Type 5 LSAs are used for external routes, not for summarizing internal OSPF routes. In summary, the correct understanding of OSPF’s operation in this context highlights the importance of Type 3 LSAs for inter-area communication and the router’s role in maintaining an accurate routing table that reflects the summarized routes from other areas. This understanding is crucial for effective OSPF configuration and troubleshooting in complex network environments.