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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
In a virtual switching environment, a network engineer is tasked with configuring a Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) that spans multiple switches to ensure efficient traffic management and segmentation. The engineer decides to implement a Virtual Switching System (VSS) to combine two physical switches into a single logical switch. Given that the VLAN ID is 10 and the engineer needs to ensure that the traffic from VLAN 10 is properly routed through the VSS, which of the following configurations is essential for maintaining VLAN integrity and ensuring that the VLAN is operational across both switches?
Correct
Option b, which suggests assigning different VLAN IDs, would lead to segmentation issues and prevent devices from communicating effectively across the switches. Static routing would not be applicable in this scenario since VLANs are designed to operate at Layer 2, and routing is not necessary for devices within the same VLAN. Option c, while implementing Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is important for preventing loops in a network, having a separate STP instance for each VLAN can complicate the configuration unnecessarily. In a VSS, the switches operate as a single logical unit, and a single instance of STP can manage the VLANs effectively. Option d, which proposes disabling trunking, would prevent VLAN traffic from being transmitted between the switches, effectively isolating the VLANs and negating the benefits of the VSS configuration. Therefore, the essential configuration for maintaining VLAN integrity and ensuring operational status across both switches is to configure the same VLAN ID and enable ISL trunking, allowing for proper traffic management and segmentation within the network.
Incorrect
Option b, which suggests assigning different VLAN IDs, would lead to segmentation issues and prevent devices from communicating effectively across the switches. Static routing would not be applicable in this scenario since VLANs are designed to operate at Layer 2, and routing is not necessary for devices within the same VLAN. Option c, while implementing Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is important for preventing loops in a network, having a separate STP instance for each VLAN can complicate the configuration unnecessarily. In a VSS, the switches operate as a single logical unit, and a single instance of STP can manage the VLANs effectively. Option d, which proposes disabling trunking, would prevent VLAN traffic from being transmitted between the switches, effectively isolating the VLANs and negating the benefits of the VSS configuration. Therefore, the essential configuration for maintaining VLAN integrity and ensuring operational status across both switches is to configure the same VLAN ID and enable ISL trunking, allowing for proper traffic management and segmentation within the network.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
A company is planning to design a new enterprise network that will support a mix of voice, video, and data traffic. The network must ensure high availability and minimal latency while accommodating future growth. The design team is considering various topologies and protocols to achieve these goals. Which design principle should the team prioritize to ensure that the network can efficiently handle the diverse traffic types and scale as needed?
Correct
The core layer is responsible for high-speed data transport and should be designed for maximum throughput and minimal latency. This is essential for voice and video traffic, which are sensitive to delays. The distribution layer serves as a mediator between the core and access layers, providing policy-based connectivity and ensuring that traffic is efficiently routed. The access layer connects end devices to the network and should be designed to handle the specific needs of various traffic types, including Quality of Service (QoS) mechanisms to prioritize voice and video traffic. In contrast, a flat network architecture (option b) lacks the segmentation necessary for efficient traffic management and can lead to congestion, especially as the network grows. Relying solely on a single routing protocol (option c) can limit flexibility and adaptability, as different protocols may be better suited for different types of traffic or network segments. Lastly, designing for maximum redundancy without considering performance (option d) can lead to unnecessary complexity and potential bottlenecks, undermining the network’s ability to handle diverse traffic efficiently. By prioritizing a hierarchical design, the team can ensure that the network is not only capable of supporting current traffic demands but also scalable for future growth, thereby maintaining high availability and performance across all services. This approach aligns with best practices in network design, emphasizing the importance of structured layers to manage complexity and optimize resource utilization effectively.
Incorrect
The core layer is responsible for high-speed data transport and should be designed for maximum throughput and minimal latency. This is essential for voice and video traffic, which are sensitive to delays. The distribution layer serves as a mediator between the core and access layers, providing policy-based connectivity and ensuring that traffic is efficiently routed. The access layer connects end devices to the network and should be designed to handle the specific needs of various traffic types, including Quality of Service (QoS) mechanisms to prioritize voice and video traffic. In contrast, a flat network architecture (option b) lacks the segmentation necessary for efficient traffic management and can lead to congestion, especially as the network grows. Relying solely on a single routing protocol (option c) can limit flexibility and adaptability, as different protocols may be better suited for different types of traffic or network segments. Lastly, designing for maximum redundancy without considering performance (option d) can lead to unnecessary complexity and potential bottlenecks, undermining the network’s ability to handle diverse traffic efficiently. By prioritizing a hierarchical design, the team can ensure that the network is not only capable of supporting current traffic demands but also scalable for future growth, thereby maintaining high availability and performance across all services. This approach aligns with best practices in network design, emphasizing the importance of structured layers to manage complexity and optimize resource utilization effectively.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
A company is designing a resilient network architecture to ensure high availability and minimal downtime. They are considering implementing a dual-homed design with two separate ISPs for their internet connectivity. If one ISP experiences a failure, the other should seamlessly take over without any noticeable impact on the users. What is the primary benefit of this dual-homed design in terms of network resiliency?
Correct
Moreover, this design can also facilitate load balancing, where traffic can be distributed across both ISPs, optimizing bandwidth usage and improving overall performance. This is particularly important for organizations that rely heavily on internet connectivity for their operations, as it helps to mitigate the risk of a single point of failure. While it is true that a dual-homed design can simplify certain aspects of network management, it does not inherently reduce the number of required devices; in fact, it may require additional equipment such as routers or switches to manage the connections effectively. Additionally, routing protocols are still necessary to ensure that traffic is directed appropriately between the two ISPs, and while dual-homing significantly increases uptime, it cannot guarantee 100% uptime due to the possibility of other failures in the network infrastructure or external factors. Thus, the nuanced understanding of network resiliency emphasizes the importance of redundancy and load balancing as key components in maintaining high availability.
Incorrect
Moreover, this design can also facilitate load balancing, where traffic can be distributed across both ISPs, optimizing bandwidth usage and improving overall performance. This is particularly important for organizations that rely heavily on internet connectivity for their operations, as it helps to mitigate the risk of a single point of failure. While it is true that a dual-homed design can simplify certain aspects of network management, it does not inherently reduce the number of required devices; in fact, it may require additional equipment such as routers or switches to manage the connections effectively. Additionally, routing protocols are still necessary to ensure that traffic is directed appropriately between the two ISPs, and while dual-homing significantly increases uptime, it cannot guarantee 100% uptime due to the possibility of other failures in the network infrastructure or external factors. Thus, the nuanced understanding of network resiliency emphasizes the importance of redundancy and load balancing as key components in maintaining high availability.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
A network engineer is tasked with ensuring the reliability and performance of a corporate network that spans multiple geographical locations. The engineer decides to implement a network assurance strategy that includes proactive monitoring and automated remediation. Which of the following approaches best exemplifies an effective network assurance strategy that balances performance monitoring with fault management?
Correct
In contrast, the second option, which relies on manual checks, is reactive and does not provide timely insights into network performance. This approach can lead to prolonged outages and degraded performance, as issues may go unnoticed until they are manually checked. The third option, focusing solely on hardware metrics, neglects the importance of application performance and user experience, which are critical in today’s network environments where applications are increasingly cloud-based. Lastly, the fourth option, a basic ping monitoring system, is insufficient for comprehensive network assurance. While it can detect device unreachability, it does not provide insights into the underlying causes of issues or the overall health of the network. Thus, the first option represents a holistic and proactive network assurance strategy that effectively balances performance monitoring with fault management, ensuring that the network remains reliable and efficient across multiple locations.
Incorrect
In contrast, the second option, which relies on manual checks, is reactive and does not provide timely insights into network performance. This approach can lead to prolonged outages and degraded performance, as issues may go unnoticed until they are manually checked. The third option, focusing solely on hardware metrics, neglects the importance of application performance and user experience, which are critical in today’s network environments where applications are increasingly cloud-based. Lastly, the fourth option, a basic ping monitoring system, is insufficient for comprehensive network assurance. While it can detect device unreachability, it does not provide insights into the underlying causes of issues or the overall health of the network. Thus, the first option represents a holistic and proactive network assurance strategy that effectively balances performance monitoring with fault management, ensuring that the network remains reliable and efficient across multiple locations.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
In a corporate network, a network engineer is tasked with implementing an Access Control List (ACL) to restrict access to a sensitive database server located at IP address 192.168.1.10. The engineer needs to allow only specific users from the subnet 192.168.1.0/24 to access the server via TCP port 3306 (MySQL). Additionally, the engineer wants to ensure that all other traffic to the server is denied. Which ACL configuration would best achieve this requirement?
Correct
Next, it is crucial to deny all other traffic to the server to ensure that no unauthorized access occurs. While option b) `access-list 100 deny ip any host 192.168.1.10` does deny all IP traffic to the server, it does not explicitly allow the desired traffic from the specified subnet, which is essential for the ACL to function correctly. Option c) `access-list 100 permit ip any host 192.168.1.10` is too broad as it allows all IP traffic to the server, which contradicts the requirement to restrict access. Lastly, option d) `access-list 100 permit tcp any host 192.168.1.10 eq 3306` allows TCP traffic from any source, which again fails to restrict access to only the specified subnet. In summary, the correct ACL configuration must first permit the specific traffic from the allowed subnet to the server on the designated port, followed by a deny statement to block all other traffic. This layered approach ensures that only authorized users can access the sensitive database server while maintaining a secure environment.
Incorrect
Next, it is crucial to deny all other traffic to the server to ensure that no unauthorized access occurs. While option b) `access-list 100 deny ip any host 192.168.1.10` does deny all IP traffic to the server, it does not explicitly allow the desired traffic from the specified subnet, which is essential for the ACL to function correctly. Option c) `access-list 100 permit ip any host 192.168.1.10` is too broad as it allows all IP traffic to the server, which contradicts the requirement to restrict access. Lastly, option d) `access-list 100 permit tcp any host 192.168.1.10 eq 3306` allows TCP traffic from any source, which again fails to restrict access to only the specified subnet. In summary, the correct ACL configuration must first permit the specific traffic from the allowed subnet to the server on the designated port, followed by a deny statement to block all other traffic. This layered approach ensures that only authorized users can access the sensitive database server while maintaining a secure environment.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
In a network utilizing Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), you have a topology consisting of three switches: Switch A, Switch B, and Switch C. Switch A is the root bridge, and it has two ports connected to Switch B and Switch C. Switch B has a port connected to Switch C. If Switch A receives a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) from Switch B indicating that it has a lower Bridge ID than Switch C, what will be the resulting port states for each switch, and how will RSTP ensure loop-free topology in this scenario?
Correct
Switch B, upon receiving the BPDU from Switch A, will also evaluate its connections. Since it has a direct connection to Switch C, it will place its port to Switch C in the forwarding state. However, to prevent loops, RSTP will place the port on Switch B that connects back to Switch A in a forwarding state, while the port connecting to Switch C will be placed in a blocking state. This blocking state prevents any potential loops that could arise from multiple paths leading back to the root bridge. The rapid convergence of RSTP is achieved through its use of the proposal and agreement mechanism, which allows switches to quickly determine the best path and transition ports to the appropriate states. This ensures that even in the event of a topology change, the network can adapt swiftly without creating loops, maintaining a stable and efficient network environment. Thus, the correct port states in this scenario would be that Switch A’s ports to B and C are in forwarding state, while Switch B’s port to C is in blocking state, effectively ensuring a loop-free topology.
Incorrect
Switch B, upon receiving the BPDU from Switch A, will also evaluate its connections. Since it has a direct connection to Switch C, it will place its port to Switch C in the forwarding state. However, to prevent loops, RSTP will place the port on Switch B that connects back to Switch A in a forwarding state, while the port connecting to Switch C will be placed in a blocking state. This blocking state prevents any potential loops that could arise from multiple paths leading back to the root bridge. The rapid convergence of RSTP is achieved through its use of the proposal and agreement mechanism, which allows switches to quickly determine the best path and transition ports to the appropriate states. This ensures that even in the event of a topology change, the network can adapt swiftly without creating loops, maintaining a stable and efficient network environment. Thus, the correct port states in this scenario would be that Switch A’s ports to B and C are in forwarding state, while Switch B’s port to C is in blocking state, effectively ensuring a loop-free topology.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
In a large enterprise network, a network engineer is tasked with implementing an automation framework to streamline the deployment of network configurations across multiple devices. The engineer decides to use Ansible for this purpose. Given the scenario, which of the following best describes how Ansible achieves idempotency in its operations, ensuring that repeated executions of the same playbook do not lead to unintended changes in the network configuration?
Correct
In contrast, the other options present flawed approaches. The push-based model mentioned in option b does not incorporate any state verification, which can lead to inconsistencies if the current configuration differs from what is expected. Option c describes a procedural approach that does not account for the existing state, which can result in repeated changes even when the configuration is already correct. Lastly, option d suggests a manual verification process, which contradicts the automation goal of Ansible and introduces potential for human error. By leveraging idempotency, Ansible not only simplifies network management but also enhances reliability and consistency across the enterprise network. This capability is particularly important in large-scale environments where multiple devices must be configured uniformly and efficiently. Understanding how Ansible achieves this through its declarative model is essential for network engineers looking to implement effective automation strategies.
Incorrect
In contrast, the other options present flawed approaches. The push-based model mentioned in option b does not incorporate any state verification, which can lead to inconsistencies if the current configuration differs from what is expected. Option c describes a procedural approach that does not account for the existing state, which can result in repeated changes even when the configuration is already correct. Lastly, option d suggests a manual verification process, which contradicts the automation goal of Ansible and introduces potential for human error. By leveraging idempotency, Ansible not only simplifies network management but also enhances reliability and consistency across the enterprise network. This capability is particularly important in large-scale environments where multiple devices must be configured uniformly and efficiently. Understanding how Ansible achieves this through its declarative model is essential for network engineers looking to implement effective automation strategies.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
A network engineer is troubleshooting a connectivity issue in a corporate environment where users are unable to access a critical application hosted on a remote server. The engineer uses a combination of tools including ping, traceroute, and Wireshark to diagnose the problem. After running a traceroute, the engineer notices that packets are being dropped at a specific hop. What is the most likely cause of this issue, and which troubleshooting tool would be most effective in further diagnosing the problem?
Correct
Using Wireshark, the engineer can analyze the packet captures to determine if the packets are being sent correctly and if any errors are occurring during transmission. This tool can also help identify if there are any unusual patterns in the traffic, such as excessive retransmissions or malformed packets, which could indicate a deeper issue with the router’s configuration or performance. On the other hand, while ping can confirm basic connectivity to the server, it does not provide insights into the intermediate hops or the nature of the packet loss. Similarly, using nslookup would only address DNS issues, which are not indicated by the traceroute results. Therefore, focusing on the identified hop with Wireshark is the most logical next step in troubleshooting this connectivity issue.
Incorrect
Using Wireshark, the engineer can analyze the packet captures to determine if the packets are being sent correctly and if any errors are occurring during transmission. This tool can also help identify if there are any unusual patterns in the traffic, such as excessive retransmissions or malformed packets, which could indicate a deeper issue with the router’s configuration or performance. On the other hand, while ping can confirm basic connectivity to the server, it does not provide insights into the intermediate hops or the nature of the packet loss. Similarly, using nslookup would only address DNS issues, which are not indicated by the traceroute results. Therefore, focusing on the identified hop with Wireshark is the most logical next step in troubleshooting this connectivity issue.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
A company is experiencing a series of unauthorized access attempts to its network. The security team has implemented a multi-layered security approach, including firewalls, intrusion detection systems (IDS), and regular security audits. However, they notice that despite these measures, there are still vulnerabilities being exploited. Which of the following strategies would most effectively enhance the security posture of the network while addressing the identified vulnerabilities?
Correct
While increasing password complexity and enforcing stricter policies (option b) can improve security, it does not address the broader issue of access control and does not mitigate risks associated with compromised credentials. Similarly, conducting more frequent penetration testing (option c) is beneficial for identifying vulnerabilities, but it is a reactive measure rather than a proactive strategy that continuously protects the network. Relying solely on existing firewall configurations (option d) is inadequate, as firewalls can only provide a certain level of protection and may not be able to detect sophisticated attacks or insider threats. In summary, a zero-trust architecture not only enhances security by ensuring that every access request is scrutinized but also aligns with modern security frameworks and best practices, making it the most effective strategy in this scenario. This approach is supported by guidelines from organizations such as NIST, which advocate for continuous verification and least privilege access as fundamental principles of network security.
Incorrect
While increasing password complexity and enforcing stricter policies (option b) can improve security, it does not address the broader issue of access control and does not mitigate risks associated with compromised credentials. Similarly, conducting more frequent penetration testing (option c) is beneficial for identifying vulnerabilities, but it is a reactive measure rather than a proactive strategy that continuously protects the network. Relying solely on existing firewall configurations (option d) is inadequate, as firewalls can only provide a certain level of protection and may not be able to detect sophisticated attacks or insider threats. In summary, a zero-trust architecture not only enhances security by ensuring that every access request is scrutinized but also aligns with modern security frameworks and best practices, making it the most effective strategy in this scenario. This approach is supported by guidelines from organizations such as NIST, which advocate for continuous verification and least privilege access as fundamental principles of network security.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
In a corporate network, a network engineer is tasked with analyzing the types of traffic flowing through the network to optimize performance. The engineer identifies three primary traffic types: voice, video, and data. Each type has distinct characteristics and requirements. Given that voice traffic is sensitive to latency and jitter, video traffic requires a certain bandwidth to maintain quality, and data traffic is generally less sensitive to these factors, how should the engineer prioritize Quality of Service (QoS) policies to ensure optimal performance for all traffic types?
Correct
By prioritizing voice traffic first, the engineer ensures that real-time communications are maintained, which is critical in a corporate setting where timely interactions can affect productivity. Next, prioritizing video traffic allows for high-quality video conferencing and streaming, which is increasingly important in modern workplaces. Finally, data traffic can be managed with lower priority since it typically involves file transfers or web browsing, which can tolerate delays without significant consequences. Implementing QoS policies in this manner aligns with the principles of traffic engineering and network management, ensuring that the most sensitive applications receive the necessary resources to function optimally. This approach not only enhances user experience but also maximizes the efficiency of network resources, leading to a well-balanced and high-performing network environment.
Incorrect
By prioritizing voice traffic first, the engineer ensures that real-time communications are maintained, which is critical in a corporate setting where timely interactions can affect productivity. Next, prioritizing video traffic allows for high-quality video conferencing and streaming, which is increasingly important in modern workplaces. Finally, data traffic can be managed with lower priority since it typically involves file transfers or web browsing, which can tolerate delays without significant consequences. Implementing QoS policies in this manner aligns with the principles of traffic engineering and network management, ensuring that the most sensitive applications receive the necessary resources to function optimally. This approach not only enhances user experience but also maximizes the efficiency of network resources, leading to a well-balanced and high-performing network environment.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
A financial institution is assessing its network security posture and has identified several potential threats and vulnerabilities. They are particularly concerned about the risk of a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack, which could overwhelm their web services and disrupt operations. To mitigate this risk, they are considering implementing a combination of rate limiting and traffic filtering. Which of the following strategies would most effectively reduce the impact of a DDoS attack while ensuring legitimate traffic is not adversely affected?
Correct
In contrast, simply increasing bandwidth (option b) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of malicious traffic. Attackers can easily scale their attacks to match or exceed the increased capacity, leading to potential service outages. Blocking all incoming traffic from certain countries (option c) may inadvertently block legitimate users who are traveling or using VPNs, thus harming the institution’s customer base. Lastly, using a simple access control list (ACL) (option d) to deny known malicious IP addresses is insufficient, as attackers often use a wide range of IP addresses, including those that are dynamic or spoofed. In summary, a WAF with intelligent rate limiting based on user behavior not only helps in mitigating DDoS attacks but also ensures that legitimate traffic is prioritized, making it the most effective strategy in this scenario. This approach aligns with best practices in network security, emphasizing the importance of adaptive and context-aware defenses in the face of evolving threats.
Incorrect
In contrast, simply increasing bandwidth (option b) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of malicious traffic. Attackers can easily scale their attacks to match or exceed the increased capacity, leading to potential service outages. Blocking all incoming traffic from certain countries (option c) may inadvertently block legitimate users who are traveling or using VPNs, thus harming the institution’s customer base. Lastly, using a simple access control list (ACL) (option d) to deny known malicious IP addresses is insufficient, as attackers often use a wide range of IP addresses, including those that are dynamic or spoofed. In summary, a WAF with intelligent rate limiting based on user behavior not only helps in mitigating DDoS attacks but also ensures that legitimate traffic is prioritized, making it the most effective strategy in this scenario. This approach aligns with best practices in network security, emphasizing the importance of adaptive and context-aware defenses in the face of evolving threats.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
In a virtualized data center environment, a network engineer is tasked with optimizing resource allocation for a set of virtual machines (VMs) running on a hypervisor. Each VM has specific resource requirements: VM1 needs 2 vCPUs and 4 GB of RAM, VM2 requires 1 vCPU and 2 GB of RAM, and VM3 demands 4 vCPUs and 8 GB of RAM. The hypervisor host has a total of 8 vCPUs and 16 GB of RAM available. If the engineer decides to allocate resources based on the principle of overcommitment, which allows for more virtual resources to be allocated than the physical resources available, what is the maximum number of VMs that can be effectively run on the hypervisor without exceeding the physical limits, assuming the engineer wants to maintain a minimum of 20% resource headroom for performance?
Correct
Calculating the headroom: – For vCPUs: 20% of 8 vCPUs = 1.6 vCPUs, which we round down to 1 vCPU for practical allocation. – For RAM: 20% of 16 GB = 3.2 GB, which we round down to 3 GB. Thus, the effective resources available for allocation are: – Effective vCPUs = 8 – 1 = 7 vCPUs – Effective RAM = 16 – 3 = 13 GB Next, we analyze the resource requirements for each VM: – VM1: 2 vCPUs, 4 GB RAM – VM2: 1 vCPU, 2 GB RAM – VM3: 4 vCPUs, 8 GB RAM To maximize the number of VMs, we can start by allocating resources to the VMs with the lowest requirements first. 1. Allocate VM2 (1 vCPU, 2 GB RAM): – Remaining: 6 vCPUs, 11 GB RAM 2. Allocate VM1 (2 vCPUs, 4 GB RAM): – Remaining: 4 vCPUs, 7 GB RAM 3. Allocate VM3 (4 vCPUs, 8 GB RAM): – Remaining: 0 vCPUs, -1 GB RAM (not possible) Instead, if we allocate VM1 and VM2: – Total used: 3 vCPUs (1 + 2) and 6 GB RAM (2 + 4) – Remaining: 5 vCPUs, 10 GB RAM Now, we can see that we cannot allocate VM3 due to RAM constraints. However, we can run VM1 and VM2 together, and we can also run VM2 and VM3 together, but not all three simultaneously due to the resource limits. Thus, the maximum number of VMs that can be effectively run on the hypervisor while maintaining the required headroom is 3 VMs (VM1, VM2, and one more VM with lower requirements). Therefore, the correct answer is that the maximum number of VMs that can be effectively run is 3.
Incorrect
Calculating the headroom: – For vCPUs: 20% of 8 vCPUs = 1.6 vCPUs, which we round down to 1 vCPU for practical allocation. – For RAM: 20% of 16 GB = 3.2 GB, which we round down to 3 GB. Thus, the effective resources available for allocation are: – Effective vCPUs = 8 – 1 = 7 vCPUs – Effective RAM = 16 – 3 = 13 GB Next, we analyze the resource requirements for each VM: – VM1: 2 vCPUs, 4 GB RAM – VM2: 1 vCPU, 2 GB RAM – VM3: 4 vCPUs, 8 GB RAM To maximize the number of VMs, we can start by allocating resources to the VMs with the lowest requirements first. 1. Allocate VM2 (1 vCPU, 2 GB RAM): – Remaining: 6 vCPUs, 11 GB RAM 2. Allocate VM1 (2 vCPUs, 4 GB RAM): – Remaining: 4 vCPUs, 7 GB RAM 3. Allocate VM3 (4 vCPUs, 8 GB RAM): – Remaining: 0 vCPUs, -1 GB RAM (not possible) Instead, if we allocate VM1 and VM2: – Total used: 3 vCPUs (1 + 2) and 6 GB RAM (2 + 4) – Remaining: 5 vCPUs, 10 GB RAM Now, we can see that we cannot allocate VM3 due to RAM constraints. However, we can run VM1 and VM2 together, and we can also run VM2 and VM3 together, but not all three simultaneously due to the resource limits. Thus, the maximum number of VMs that can be effectively run on the hypervisor while maintaining the required headroom is 3 VMs (VM1, VM2, and one more VM with lower requirements). Therefore, the correct answer is that the maximum number of VMs that can be effectively run is 3.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
In a network automation scenario, a network engineer is tasked with creating a Python script that retrieves the current configuration of multiple Cisco routers using the Netmiko library. The script should connect to each router, execute the command `show running-config`, and save the output to a text file named after each router’s hostname. The engineer needs to ensure that the script handles exceptions properly and retries the connection up to three times in case of a failure. Which of the following best describes the key components that should be included in the script to achieve this functionality?
Correct
Next, implementing a try-except block is vital for robust error handling. This block will catch exceptions that may arise during the connection process, such as timeouts or authentication failures. By using a retry mechanism within the except block, the script can attempt to reconnect up to three times before giving up, which enhances reliability in unstable network conditions. Additionally, a function dedicated to saving the output to a file is necessary. This function should dynamically name the file based on the router’s hostname, ensuring that configurations are stored in an organized manner. The use of string formatting or concatenation can facilitate this process, allowing for clear and systematic file management. In contrast, the other options present significant shortcomings. For instance, a single function without error handling would leave the script vulnerable to failures, while a conditional statement that merely checks for success without further action would not fulfill the requirement of saving the output. Lastly, hardcoding a static list of routers eliminates flexibility and adaptability, which are critical in dynamic network environments. By incorporating these components—iteration, error handling, and dynamic file saving—the script will not only function correctly but also adhere to best practices in network automation, ensuring that it can handle real-world scenarios effectively.
Incorrect
Next, implementing a try-except block is vital for robust error handling. This block will catch exceptions that may arise during the connection process, such as timeouts or authentication failures. By using a retry mechanism within the except block, the script can attempt to reconnect up to three times before giving up, which enhances reliability in unstable network conditions. Additionally, a function dedicated to saving the output to a file is necessary. This function should dynamically name the file based on the router’s hostname, ensuring that configurations are stored in an organized manner. The use of string formatting or concatenation can facilitate this process, allowing for clear and systematic file management. In contrast, the other options present significant shortcomings. For instance, a single function without error handling would leave the script vulnerable to failures, while a conditional statement that merely checks for success without further action would not fulfill the requirement of saving the output. Lastly, hardcoding a static list of routers eliminates flexibility and adaptability, which are critical in dynamic network environments. By incorporating these components—iteration, error handling, and dynamic file saving—the script will not only function correctly but also adhere to best practices in network automation, ensuring that it can handle real-world scenarios effectively.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
In a large enterprise network, an organization is implementing AI-driven operations to enhance its network management capabilities. The network consists of multiple branches, each with its own set of devices and applications. The AI system is designed to analyze traffic patterns, predict potential failures, and optimize resource allocation. If the AI system identifies a sudden spike in traffic that exceeds the normal threshold by 150%, what would be the most effective initial response to mitigate potential network congestion and ensure service continuity?
Correct
The most effective initial response is to automatically allocate additional bandwidth to the affected segment of the network. This proactive measure allows the network to adapt to the increased demand in real-time, ensuring that critical applications continue to function smoothly without interruption. By leveraging AI capabilities, the network can make data-driven decisions that enhance operational efficiency and user experience. On the other hand, notifying the network administrator to manually assess the situation introduces delays that could exacerbate the congestion issue. While human oversight is important, relying solely on manual intervention in a rapidly changing environment can lead to missed opportunities for timely action. Temporarily shutting down non-essential applications may seem like a viable option, but it can disrupt user productivity and may not address the root cause of the traffic spike. Additionally, indiscriminately increasing QoS settings for all applications could lead to unintended consequences, such as prioritizing less critical traffic over essential services, ultimately compromising the overall network performance. In summary, the integration of AI-driven operations allows for automated, intelligent responses to network anomalies, making the allocation of additional bandwidth the most effective strategy to mitigate congestion and maintain service continuity in this scenario.
Incorrect
The most effective initial response is to automatically allocate additional bandwidth to the affected segment of the network. This proactive measure allows the network to adapt to the increased demand in real-time, ensuring that critical applications continue to function smoothly without interruption. By leveraging AI capabilities, the network can make data-driven decisions that enhance operational efficiency and user experience. On the other hand, notifying the network administrator to manually assess the situation introduces delays that could exacerbate the congestion issue. While human oversight is important, relying solely on manual intervention in a rapidly changing environment can lead to missed opportunities for timely action. Temporarily shutting down non-essential applications may seem like a viable option, but it can disrupt user productivity and may not address the root cause of the traffic spike. Additionally, indiscriminately increasing QoS settings for all applications could lead to unintended consequences, such as prioritizing less critical traffic over essential services, ultimately compromising the overall network performance. In summary, the integration of AI-driven operations allows for automated, intelligent responses to network anomalies, making the allocation of additional bandwidth the most effective strategy to mitigate congestion and maintain service continuity in this scenario.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
In a corporate environment, a network engineer is tasked with designing a scalable and resilient network architecture for a growing organization. The organization plans to implement a hybrid cloud solution that integrates on-premises resources with public cloud services. Which of the following design principles should the engineer prioritize to ensure optimal performance and reliability in this hybrid environment?
Correct
In contrast, relying solely on traditional MPLS connections can lead to increased costs and may not provide the necessary flexibility to adapt to changing traffic patterns or application needs. While MPLS offers reliability, it lacks the agility that modern applications require, especially in a hybrid setup where workloads may shift between on-premises and cloud environments. Utilizing a single cloud provider may seem advantageous for management simplicity; however, it can lead to vendor lock-in and limit the organization’s ability to leverage the best services available across multiple providers. This approach can hinder scalability and innovation, which are critical in a rapidly evolving technological landscape. Lastly, configuring static routing for all network segments is not advisable in a hybrid environment. Static routing lacks the adaptability needed to respond to network changes, which can result in suboptimal performance and increased latency. Dynamic routing protocols, in contrast, can automatically adjust to network changes, ensuring that traffic flows efficiently. In summary, prioritizing SD-WAN implementation allows for a more resilient, scalable, and performance-oriented network architecture that can effectively support the demands of a hybrid cloud environment.
Incorrect
In contrast, relying solely on traditional MPLS connections can lead to increased costs and may not provide the necessary flexibility to adapt to changing traffic patterns or application needs. While MPLS offers reliability, it lacks the agility that modern applications require, especially in a hybrid setup where workloads may shift between on-premises and cloud environments. Utilizing a single cloud provider may seem advantageous for management simplicity; however, it can lead to vendor lock-in and limit the organization’s ability to leverage the best services available across multiple providers. This approach can hinder scalability and innovation, which are critical in a rapidly evolving technological landscape. Lastly, configuring static routing for all network segments is not advisable in a hybrid environment. Static routing lacks the adaptability needed to respond to network changes, which can result in suboptimal performance and increased latency. Dynamic routing protocols, in contrast, can automatically adjust to network changes, ensuring that traffic flows efficiently. In summary, prioritizing SD-WAN implementation allows for a more resilient, scalable, and performance-oriented network architecture that can effectively support the demands of a hybrid cloud environment.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
In a corporate environment, a network security team is tasked with implementing a Defense in Depth strategy to protect sensitive data from potential breaches. They decide to deploy multiple layers of security controls, including firewalls, intrusion detection systems (IDS), and endpoint protection. After assessing the current security posture, they identify that the firewall is configured to allow all outbound traffic, while the IDS is set to alert on suspicious activities but does not block them. Given this scenario, which combination of adjustments would most effectively enhance the Defense in Depth strategy while ensuring that sensitive data remains protected?
Correct
Additionally, enabling blocking features on the IDS is crucial. While the IDS is designed to alert on suspicious activities, it does not provide adequate protection if it merely reports incidents without taking action. By allowing the IDS to block suspicious activities, the organization can prevent potential breaches before they escalate, thus reinforcing the Defense in Depth strategy. The other options present less effective approaches. Leaving the firewall unchanged while increasing logging levels on the IDS does not address the immediate risk of unrestricted outbound traffic. Implementing a VPN without modifying existing security settings may enhance privacy but does not directly mitigate the risks posed by the current firewall configuration. Finally, disabling the IDS undermines the layered security approach, as it removes an essential component that detects and responds to threats. In summary, the most effective adjustments involve configuring the firewall to restrict outbound traffic and enabling blocking features on the IDS, thereby creating a more robust Defense in Depth strategy that actively protects sensitive data from potential breaches.
Incorrect
Additionally, enabling blocking features on the IDS is crucial. While the IDS is designed to alert on suspicious activities, it does not provide adequate protection if it merely reports incidents without taking action. By allowing the IDS to block suspicious activities, the organization can prevent potential breaches before they escalate, thus reinforcing the Defense in Depth strategy. The other options present less effective approaches. Leaving the firewall unchanged while increasing logging levels on the IDS does not address the immediate risk of unrestricted outbound traffic. Implementing a VPN without modifying existing security settings may enhance privacy but does not directly mitigate the risks posed by the current firewall configuration. Finally, disabling the IDS undermines the layered security approach, as it removes an essential component that detects and responds to threats. In summary, the most effective adjustments involve configuring the firewall to restrict outbound traffic and enabling blocking features on the IDS, thereby creating a more robust Defense in Depth strategy that actively protects sensitive data from potential breaches.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
In a corporate network, a network engineer is tasked with implementing Quality of Service (QoS) to prioritize voice traffic over regular data traffic. The engineer decides to classify and mark the voice packets using Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) values. If the voice traffic is assigned a DSCP value of 46, what is the expected behavior of the network devices when handling this traffic, and how does it compare to a DSCP value of 0?
Correct
On the other hand, a DSCP value of 0 signifies best-effort service, which means that the packets are treated with no special priority. This is the default behavior for most network traffic, where packets may experience delays, especially during congestion. When network devices encounter packets marked with a DSCP value of 46, they will prioritize these packets over those marked with a DSCP value of 0, ensuring that voice traffic is processed first and with the highest priority. This classification and marking process is essential in environments where multiple types of traffic coexist, as it allows for efficient bandwidth utilization and improved overall network performance. Understanding the implications of different DSCP values is critical for network engineers to design and implement effective QoS policies that meet the specific needs of their organizations.
Incorrect
On the other hand, a DSCP value of 0 signifies best-effort service, which means that the packets are treated with no special priority. This is the default behavior for most network traffic, where packets may experience delays, especially during congestion. When network devices encounter packets marked with a DSCP value of 46, they will prioritize these packets over those marked with a DSCP value of 0, ensuring that voice traffic is processed first and with the highest priority. This classification and marking process is essential in environments where multiple types of traffic coexist, as it allows for efficient bandwidth utilization and improved overall network performance. Understanding the implications of different DSCP values is critical for network engineers to design and implement effective QoS policies that meet the specific needs of their organizations.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
In a large enterprise network, a company is planning to implement a Cisco Enterprise Architecture that includes a hierarchical design model. The network will consist of core, distribution, and access layers. The IT team is tasked with ensuring that the architecture supports scalability, redundancy, and efficient traffic management. Given the following requirements: the core layer must provide high-speed connectivity and redundancy, the distribution layer must aggregate traffic from multiple access layer switches, and the access layer must connect end devices while providing security features. Which design principle should the team prioritize to ensure optimal performance and reliability across all layers?
Correct
The distribution layer plays a critical role in aggregating traffic from multiple access layer switches and should incorporate redundancy to prevent single points of failure. This can be achieved through techniques such as link aggregation and implementing protocols like Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure loop-free topologies. On the other hand, a flat network topology, while it may seem simpler, can lead to scalability issues and increased broadcast traffic, which can degrade performance. Relying solely on software-defined networking (SDN) may not address all the physical layer requirements and could introduce complexity without the necessary hardware support. Lastly, centralizing routing functions at the access layer contradicts the principles of a hierarchical design, which aims to distribute functions appropriately across layers to optimize performance and manageability. Thus, a modular design is essential for ensuring that the network can grow and adapt to future needs while maintaining high performance and reliability across all layers. This design principle aligns with Cisco’s best practices for enterprise network architecture, emphasizing the importance of a structured approach to network design.
Incorrect
The distribution layer plays a critical role in aggregating traffic from multiple access layer switches and should incorporate redundancy to prevent single points of failure. This can be achieved through techniques such as link aggregation and implementing protocols like Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure loop-free topologies. On the other hand, a flat network topology, while it may seem simpler, can lead to scalability issues and increased broadcast traffic, which can degrade performance. Relying solely on software-defined networking (SDN) may not address all the physical layer requirements and could introduce complexity without the necessary hardware support. Lastly, centralizing routing functions at the access layer contradicts the principles of a hierarchical design, which aims to distribute functions appropriately across layers to optimize performance and manageability. Thus, a modular design is essential for ensuring that the network can grow and adapt to future needs while maintaining high performance and reliability across all layers. This design principle aligns with Cisco’s best practices for enterprise network architecture, emphasizing the importance of a structured approach to network design.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
A company is implementing a new network security policy that includes the use of a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS). The network administrator is tasked with ensuring that the firewall is configured to allow only specific types of traffic while the IDS monitors for any unauthorized access attempts. Given the following traffic types: HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, and Telnet, which configuration would best enhance the security posture of the network while allowing necessary business operations?
Correct
On the other hand, FTP (File Transfer Protocol) and Telnet are considered less secure. FTP transmits data in plaintext, making it vulnerable to interception and attacks, while Telnet does not encrypt its traffic, exposing sensitive information such as usernames and passwords. Therefore, allowing these protocols could significantly increase the risk of unauthorized access and data breaches. By configuring the firewall to allow only HTTP and HTTPS traffic, the network administrator effectively reduces the attack surface while still enabling essential web-based services. The IDS can then monitor for any unauthorized access attempts, providing an additional layer of security. This configuration aligns with best practices in network security, which emphasize the principle of least privilege—only allowing the minimum necessary access to perform business functions while denying potentially harmful traffic. In contrast, allowing all traffic types (option b) would expose the network to unnecessary risks, as it would not restrict access to insecure protocols. Allowing FTP and Telnet (option c) would further compromise security, and allowing only Telnet (option d) would be detrimental, as it would block essential web traffic. Thus, the most effective configuration is to allow HTTP and HTTPS while denying the less secure protocols.
Incorrect
On the other hand, FTP (File Transfer Protocol) and Telnet are considered less secure. FTP transmits data in plaintext, making it vulnerable to interception and attacks, while Telnet does not encrypt its traffic, exposing sensitive information such as usernames and passwords. Therefore, allowing these protocols could significantly increase the risk of unauthorized access and data breaches. By configuring the firewall to allow only HTTP and HTTPS traffic, the network administrator effectively reduces the attack surface while still enabling essential web-based services. The IDS can then monitor for any unauthorized access attempts, providing an additional layer of security. This configuration aligns with best practices in network security, which emphasize the principle of least privilege—only allowing the minimum necessary access to perform business functions while denying potentially harmful traffic. In contrast, allowing all traffic types (option b) would expose the network to unnecessary risks, as it would not restrict access to insecure protocols. Allowing FTP and Telnet (option c) would further compromise security, and allowing only Telnet (option d) would be detrimental, as it would block essential web traffic. Thus, the most effective configuration is to allow HTTP and HTTPS while denying the less secure protocols.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
In a corporate network, a network engineer is tasked with implementing Quality of Service (QoS) to ensure that voice traffic is prioritized over regular data traffic. The engineer decides to use Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) values to classify and mark packets. If the voice traffic is assigned a DSCP value of 46 and the data traffic is assigned a DSCP value of 0, what is the expected behavior of the network devices when handling these packets, and how does this relate to the overall QoS strategy?
Correct
When the network engineer assigns a DSCP value of 46 to voice packets, network devices such as routers and switches recognize this marking and treat these packets with higher priority compared to those marked with a DSCP value of 0, which is typically used for best-effort traffic. This means that during periods of congestion, the network devices will preferentially forward voice packets, ensuring that they are transmitted with minimal latency and jitter. This behavior is aligned with the overall QoS strategy, which aims to provide a predictable level of service for critical applications. By effectively managing bandwidth and prioritizing traffic based on its DSCP markings, the network can maintain high-quality voice communications even when the network is under heavy load. In contrast, if the network devices were to treat both DSCP values equally, or if the DSCP value of 0 were prioritized, voice traffic would likely experience delays, leading to poor call quality. Dropping packets with a DSCP value of 0 is also not a standard practice, as it would undermine the best-effort service model that is foundational to IP networking. Thus, the correct implementation of QoS through DSCP marking is essential for ensuring that critical applications like voice traffic are delivered effectively in a corporate environment.
Incorrect
When the network engineer assigns a DSCP value of 46 to voice packets, network devices such as routers and switches recognize this marking and treat these packets with higher priority compared to those marked with a DSCP value of 0, which is typically used for best-effort traffic. This means that during periods of congestion, the network devices will preferentially forward voice packets, ensuring that they are transmitted with minimal latency and jitter. This behavior is aligned with the overall QoS strategy, which aims to provide a predictable level of service for critical applications. By effectively managing bandwidth and prioritizing traffic based on its DSCP markings, the network can maintain high-quality voice communications even when the network is under heavy load. In contrast, if the network devices were to treat both DSCP values equally, or if the DSCP value of 0 were prioritized, voice traffic would likely experience delays, leading to poor call quality. Dropping packets with a DSCP value of 0 is also not a standard practice, as it would undermine the best-effort service model that is foundational to IP networking. Thus, the correct implementation of QoS through DSCP marking is essential for ensuring that critical applications like voice traffic are delivered effectively in a corporate environment.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
In a network utilizing Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), a switch receives a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) indicating that a neighboring switch has a lower Bridge ID. If the local switch has a Bridge ID of 32768 and the neighboring switch has a Bridge ID of 32769, what action should the local switch take in response to this BPDU? Additionally, consider that the local switch has a port in the Discarding state and another in the Learning state. How will the local switch’s port states change as a result of this BPDU?
Correct
The local switch will transition the port that is currently in the Discarding state to the Learning state. This transition occurs because the local switch is now aware that it is in a position to forward traffic, but it first needs to learn about the MAC addresses on the network. The port in the Learning state will remain unchanged because it is already in the process of learning MAC addresses and is not yet forwarding traffic. In RSTP, the port states are crucial for determining how traffic flows through the network. The Discarding state prevents any traffic from being forwarded, while the Learning state allows the switch to gather information about the network without forwarding frames. The transition from Discarding to Learning signifies that the local switch is preparing to participate more actively in the network while still avoiding loops. Thus, the correct response involves changing the state of the Discarding port to Learning while keeping the Learning port unchanged. This behavior aligns with RSTP’s rapid convergence capabilities, allowing the network to adapt quickly to changes in topology while maintaining loop-free operation.
Incorrect
The local switch will transition the port that is currently in the Discarding state to the Learning state. This transition occurs because the local switch is now aware that it is in a position to forward traffic, but it first needs to learn about the MAC addresses on the network. The port in the Learning state will remain unchanged because it is already in the process of learning MAC addresses and is not yet forwarding traffic. In RSTP, the port states are crucial for determining how traffic flows through the network. The Discarding state prevents any traffic from being forwarded, while the Learning state allows the switch to gather information about the network without forwarding frames. The transition from Discarding to Learning signifies that the local switch is preparing to participate more actively in the network while still avoiding loops. Thus, the correct response involves changing the state of the Discarding port to Learning while keeping the Learning port unchanged. This behavior aligns with RSTP’s rapid convergence capabilities, allowing the network to adapt quickly to changes in topology while maintaining loop-free operation.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
In a 5G network architecture, consider a scenario where a mobile operator is deploying a new service that requires ultra-reliable low-latency communication (URLLC). The operator needs to determine the optimal configuration of the Radio Access Network (RAN) and the Core Network (CN) to meet the stringent latency requirements of less than 1 millisecond. Which of the following configurations would best support this requirement while ensuring efficient resource allocation and minimal interference?
Correct
In this context, edge computing plays a vital role by processing data at the edge of the network, thus further reducing latency. By leveraging a Service-Based Architecture (SBA) in the Core Network, the operator can dynamically allocate resources and scale services based on demand, which is crucial for maintaining the performance required for URLLC. On the other hand, a centralized RAN with traditional network functions would introduce additional latency due to the distance data must travel to reach centralized processing units. Similarly, a hybrid RAN that relies on legacy systems would not be able to fully utilize the advanced features of 5G, such as network slicing, which allows for the creation of virtual networks tailored to specific service requirements. Lastly, configuring a standalone 5G Core without network slicing or edge computing would severely limit the network’s ability to meet the diverse needs of different applications, particularly those requiring low latency. In summary, the optimal configuration for supporting URLLC in a 5G network involves a distributed RAN architecture combined with edge computing and a Service-Based Architecture in the Core Network. This approach ensures efficient resource allocation, minimal interference, and the ability to meet stringent latency requirements, making it the most suitable choice for the scenario presented.
Incorrect
In this context, edge computing plays a vital role by processing data at the edge of the network, thus further reducing latency. By leveraging a Service-Based Architecture (SBA) in the Core Network, the operator can dynamically allocate resources and scale services based on demand, which is crucial for maintaining the performance required for URLLC. On the other hand, a centralized RAN with traditional network functions would introduce additional latency due to the distance data must travel to reach centralized processing units. Similarly, a hybrid RAN that relies on legacy systems would not be able to fully utilize the advanced features of 5G, such as network slicing, which allows for the creation of virtual networks tailored to specific service requirements. Lastly, configuring a standalone 5G Core without network slicing or edge computing would severely limit the network’s ability to meet the diverse needs of different applications, particularly those requiring low latency. In summary, the optimal configuration for supporting URLLC in a 5G network involves a distributed RAN architecture combined with edge computing and a Service-Based Architecture in the Core Network. This approach ensures efficient resource allocation, minimal interference, and the ability to meet stringent latency requirements, making it the most suitable choice for the scenario presented.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A network engineer is tasked with designing a VLAN architecture for a medium-sized enterprise that has multiple departments, including HR, Finance, and IT. Each department requires its own VLAN for security and traffic management. The engineer decides to implement VLANs with the following configurations: VLAN 10 for HR, VLAN 20 for Finance, and VLAN 30 for IT. The engineer also needs to ensure that inter-VLAN routing is configured correctly to allow communication between these VLANs while maintaining security policies. If the engineer uses a Layer 3 switch for inter-VLAN routing, what is the minimum number of IP subnets required to support this configuration, assuming each VLAN will have a separate subnet?
Correct
For inter-VLAN routing to function correctly, a Layer 3 switch will need to route traffic between these VLANs. This requires that each VLAN has a unique subnet. Since there are three VLANs (VLAN 10 for HR, VLAN 20 for Finance, and VLAN 30 for IT), the engineer must allocate a separate IP subnet for each VLAN. For example, the following subnets could be assigned: – VLAN 10 (HR): 192.168.10.0/24 – VLAN 20 (Finance): 192.168.20.0/24 – VLAN 30 (IT): 192.168.30.0/24 This configuration allows for 256 IP addresses per subnet, which is typically sufficient for medium-sized departments. The Layer 3 switch will have interfaces configured with IP addresses from each subnet, enabling it to route traffic between VLANs while maintaining the necessary security policies. Thus, the minimum number of IP subnets required to support this configuration is three, corresponding to the three VLANs created. This understanding of VLANs and inter-VLAN routing is crucial for effective network design and management, ensuring that the network remains organized, secure, and efficient.
Incorrect
For inter-VLAN routing to function correctly, a Layer 3 switch will need to route traffic between these VLANs. This requires that each VLAN has a unique subnet. Since there are three VLANs (VLAN 10 for HR, VLAN 20 for Finance, and VLAN 30 for IT), the engineer must allocate a separate IP subnet for each VLAN. For example, the following subnets could be assigned: – VLAN 10 (HR): 192.168.10.0/24 – VLAN 20 (Finance): 192.168.20.0/24 – VLAN 30 (IT): 192.168.30.0/24 This configuration allows for 256 IP addresses per subnet, which is typically sufficient for medium-sized departments. The Layer 3 switch will have interfaces configured with IP addresses from each subnet, enabling it to route traffic between VLANs while maintaining the necessary security policies. Thus, the minimum number of IP subnets required to support this configuration is three, corresponding to the three VLANs created. This understanding of VLANs and inter-VLAN routing is crucial for effective network design and management, ensuring that the network remains organized, secure, and efficient.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
In a network utilizing the OpenFlow protocol, a network administrator is tasked with configuring a flow table to manage traffic for a specific application that requires low latency. The application generates packets that must be forwarded to a specific server based on their source IP address. The administrator decides to implement a flow entry that matches packets from the source IP range of 192.168.1.0/24 and sets the action to forward these packets to port 2. Given that the flow table has a maximum of 100 entries and the administrator wants to ensure that the flow table remains efficient, which of the following strategies should the administrator consider to optimize the flow table usage while maintaining the required functionality?
Correct
Using wildcard matching is a highly effective strategy in this context. By consolidating multiple flow entries into a single entry that matches a broader range of source IP addresses, the administrator can significantly reduce the number of entries in the flow table. For example, instead of creating separate entries for each IP address within the 192.168.1.0/24 range, a single entry can be created that matches all addresses in that range. This not only conserves space in the flow table but also simplifies management and reduces the processing overhead on the switch. Creating individual flow entries for each specific source IP address, as suggested in option b, would lead to inefficient use of the flow table, especially given the maximum limit of 100 entries. This approach could quickly exhaust the available entries, making it difficult to accommodate other necessary flows. Implementing a default flow entry that drops all unmatched packets (option c) may seem like a good security measure, but it does not address the optimization of flow table usage. While it ensures that only desired traffic is processed, it does not help in managing the flow table size effectively. Increasing the flow table size (option d) is not a practical solution, as it may not be feasible in all network environments and does not address the underlying issue of flow table management. In summary, the best approach for the administrator is to utilize wildcard matching to optimize flow table usage while maintaining the necessary functionality for the application traffic. This strategy aligns with the principles of efficient network management and resource allocation inherent in the OpenFlow protocol.
Incorrect
Using wildcard matching is a highly effective strategy in this context. By consolidating multiple flow entries into a single entry that matches a broader range of source IP addresses, the administrator can significantly reduce the number of entries in the flow table. For example, instead of creating separate entries for each IP address within the 192.168.1.0/24 range, a single entry can be created that matches all addresses in that range. This not only conserves space in the flow table but also simplifies management and reduces the processing overhead on the switch. Creating individual flow entries for each specific source IP address, as suggested in option b, would lead to inefficient use of the flow table, especially given the maximum limit of 100 entries. This approach could quickly exhaust the available entries, making it difficult to accommodate other necessary flows. Implementing a default flow entry that drops all unmatched packets (option c) may seem like a good security measure, but it does not address the optimization of flow table usage. While it ensures that only desired traffic is processed, it does not help in managing the flow table size effectively. Increasing the flow table size (option d) is not a practical solution, as it may not be feasible in all network environments and does not address the underlying issue of flow table management. In summary, the best approach for the administrator is to utilize wildcard matching to optimize flow table usage while maintaining the necessary functionality for the application traffic. This strategy aligns with the principles of efficient network management and resource allocation inherent in the OpenFlow protocol.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
In a corporate network, the IT department is tasked with implementing Quality of Service (QoS) to prioritize voice traffic over regular data traffic. The network consists of multiple VLANs, and the IT team decides to use Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) values to classify and mark packets. If the voice traffic is assigned a DSCP value of 46, what is the expected behavior of the network devices when they encounter packets with this DSCP value, and how should the IT team configure the network to ensure that voice packets receive the highest priority?
Correct
To achieve this, the IT team must configure the network devices, such as routers and switches, to recognize the DSCP value and apply appropriate queuing mechanisms. This typically involves configuring priority queuing or low-latency queuing (LLQ) on the interfaces handling voice traffic. By doing so, the network devices will place voice packets in a high-priority queue, allowing them to bypass congestion and be transmitted ahead of lower-priority traffic. Additionally, the IT team should ensure that the network’s bandwidth is adequately provisioned to handle the expected voice traffic load, as insufficient bandwidth can lead to packet loss and degradation of voice quality. Implementing traffic shaping and policing can also help manage the overall traffic flow and maintain the desired QoS levels. Thus, the correct approach involves recognizing the DSCP marking and configuring the network to prioritize these packets effectively, ensuring optimal performance for voice communications.
Incorrect
To achieve this, the IT team must configure the network devices, such as routers and switches, to recognize the DSCP value and apply appropriate queuing mechanisms. This typically involves configuring priority queuing or low-latency queuing (LLQ) on the interfaces handling voice traffic. By doing so, the network devices will place voice packets in a high-priority queue, allowing them to bypass congestion and be transmitted ahead of lower-priority traffic. Additionally, the IT team should ensure that the network’s bandwidth is adequately provisioned to handle the expected voice traffic load, as insufficient bandwidth can lead to packet loss and degradation of voice quality. Implementing traffic shaping and policing can also help manage the overall traffic flow and maintain the desired QoS levels. Thus, the correct approach involves recognizing the DSCP marking and configuring the network to prioritize these packets effectively, ensuring optimal performance for voice communications.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A company is planning to deploy a wireless network across a large office building with multiple floors. The building has a total area of 50,000 square feet, and the company wants to ensure optimal coverage and minimal interference. They decide to use 802.11ac access points, which have a maximum range of approximately 150 feet indoors. Given that the access points will be mounted on the ceiling, how many access points should the company deploy to ensure complete coverage, assuming each access point can effectively cover a circular area with a radius of 150 feet?
Correct
$$ A = \pi r^2 $$ where \( r \) is the radius of the coverage area. In this case, the radius is 150 feet. Therefore, the area covered by one access point is: $$ A = \pi (150)^2 \approx 70685.75 \text{ square feet} $$ Next, we need to find out how many access points are necessary to cover the total area of the building, which is 50,000 square feet. To do this, we divide the total area of the building by the area covered by one access point: $$ \text{Number of Access Points} = \frac{\text{Total Area}}{\text{Area per Access Point}} = \frac{50000}{70685.75} \approx 0.707 $$ Since we cannot have a fraction of an access point, we round up to the nearest whole number, which means at least 1 access point is needed. However, this calculation assumes perfect conditions without any interference or obstacles, which is rarely the case in a real-world environment. In practice, to ensure optimal coverage and account for potential interference from walls, furniture, and other obstacles, it is advisable to deploy additional access points. A common rule of thumb is to deploy access points at a density that allows for overlapping coverage, typically resulting in a recommendation of 2 to 3 access points per coverage area. Given the size of the building and the need for redundancy and overlap, a more realistic estimate would suggest deploying around 10 access points to ensure complete coverage and mitigate potential dead zones. This approach also allows for future scalability and accommodates any additional devices that may connect to the network. Thus, the correct answer is 10 access points, which balances coverage, redundancy, and practical deployment considerations.
Incorrect
$$ A = \pi r^2 $$ where \( r \) is the radius of the coverage area. In this case, the radius is 150 feet. Therefore, the area covered by one access point is: $$ A = \pi (150)^2 \approx 70685.75 \text{ square feet} $$ Next, we need to find out how many access points are necessary to cover the total area of the building, which is 50,000 square feet. To do this, we divide the total area of the building by the area covered by one access point: $$ \text{Number of Access Points} = \frac{\text{Total Area}}{\text{Area per Access Point}} = \frac{50000}{70685.75} \approx 0.707 $$ Since we cannot have a fraction of an access point, we round up to the nearest whole number, which means at least 1 access point is needed. However, this calculation assumes perfect conditions without any interference or obstacles, which is rarely the case in a real-world environment. In practice, to ensure optimal coverage and account for potential interference from walls, furniture, and other obstacles, it is advisable to deploy additional access points. A common rule of thumb is to deploy access points at a density that allows for overlapping coverage, typically resulting in a recommendation of 2 to 3 access points per coverage area. Given the size of the building and the need for redundancy and overlap, a more realistic estimate would suggest deploying around 10 access points to ensure complete coverage and mitigate potential dead zones. This approach also allows for future scalability and accommodates any additional devices that may connect to the network. Thus, the correct answer is 10 access points, which balances coverage, redundancy, and practical deployment considerations.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A financial institution is implementing an Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS) to monitor its network traffic for potential threats. The IDPS is configured to operate in inline mode, allowing it to actively block malicious traffic. During a routine analysis, the security team notices that the IDPS is generating a high number of false positives, leading to legitimate traffic being blocked. To address this issue, the team decides to adjust the sensitivity settings of the IDPS. What is the most effective approach for the team to take in order to reduce false positives while maintaining a robust security posture?
Correct
Increasing the overall sensitivity of the IDPS may seem like a proactive measure, but it can lead to an even higher rate of false positives, as it would capture a broader range of traffic, including benign activities. Disabling the IDPS temporarily is not a viable solution, as it exposes the network to potential threats during that period. Shifting the IDPS to a passive monitoring mode eliminates the system’s ability to actively block threats, which undermines the primary purpose of having an IDPS in place. Furthermore, organizations must consider the balance between security and usability. A well-tuned IDPS should minimize disruptions to legitimate users while still providing robust protection against intrusions. Regularly reviewing and updating the rule set based on evolving threat landscapes and network behavior is essential for maintaining this balance. This approach aligns with best practices in cybersecurity, emphasizing the importance of continuous monitoring and adjustment of security measures to adapt to new challenges.
Incorrect
Increasing the overall sensitivity of the IDPS may seem like a proactive measure, but it can lead to an even higher rate of false positives, as it would capture a broader range of traffic, including benign activities. Disabling the IDPS temporarily is not a viable solution, as it exposes the network to potential threats during that period. Shifting the IDPS to a passive monitoring mode eliminates the system’s ability to actively block threats, which undermines the primary purpose of having an IDPS in place. Furthermore, organizations must consider the balance between security and usability. A well-tuned IDPS should minimize disruptions to legitimate users while still providing robust protection against intrusions. Regularly reviewing and updating the rule set based on evolving threat landscapes and network behavior is essential for maintaining this balance. This approach aligns with best practices in cybersecurity, emphasizing the importance of continuous monitoring and adjustment of security measures to adapt to new challenges.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
In a large enterprise network utilizing Cisco DNA Center, the network administrator is tasked with implementing a policy-based approach to manage network resources effectively. The administrator needs to ensure that the Quality of Service (QoS) policies are applied correctly to prioritize voice traffic over video traffic. Given that the voice traffic requires a minimum bandwidth of 100 kbps and a maximum latency of 150 ms, while video traffic can tolerate a minimum bandwidth of 200 kbps and a maximum latency of 300 ms, how should the administrator configure the QoS policies to ensure optimal performance for both types of traffic?
Correct
To achieve this, the administrator should classify voice traffic with a higher priority than video traffic. This can be accomplished by marking voice packets with appropriate Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) values, such as EF (Expedited Forwarding), which is designed for voice traffic and ensures that it receives preferential treatment in the network. In contrast, video traffic can be marked with a lower priority DSCP value, such as AF (Assured Forwarding), which allows it to be treated with less urgency compared to voice traffic. Setting the same DSCP values for both traffic types would undermine the QoS strategy, as it would not allow the network to differentiate between the two, leading to potential degradation of voice quality during peak usage times. Applying a bandwidth limit to voice traffic could also be detrimental, as it may prevent voice calls from achieving the necessary bandwidth for optimal performance. Lastly, using a round-robin scheduling method would treat all packets equally, which is not suitable for traffic types with different QoS requirements. Thus, the correct approach is to configure the QoS policy to prioritize voice traffic, ensuring that it meets its stringent requirements for bandwidth and latency while still accommodating video traffic effectively. This nuanced understanding of QoS principles and their application in Cisco DNA Center is essential for maintaining high-quality network performance in enterprise environments.
Incorrect
To achieve this, the administrator should classify voice traffic with a higher priority than video traffic. This can be accomplished by marking voice packets with appropriate Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) values, such as EF (Expedited Forwarding), which is designed for voice traffic and ensures that it receives preferential treatment in the network. In contrast, video traffic can be marked with a lower priority DSCP value, such as AF (Assured Forwarding), which allows it to be treated with less urgency compared to voice traffic. Setting the same DSCP values for both traffic types would undermine the QoS strategy, as it would not allow the network to differentiate between the two, leading to potential degradation of voice quality during peak usage times. Applying a bandwidth limit to voice traffic could also be detrimental, as it may prevent voice calls from achieving the necessary bandwidth for optimal performance. Lastly, using a round-robin scheduling method would treat all packets equally, which is not suitable for traffic types with different QoS requirements. Thus, the correct approach is to configure the QoS policy to prioritize voice traffic, ensuring that it meets its stringent requirements for bandwidth and latency while still accommodating video traffic effectively. This nuanced understanding of QoS principles and their application in Cisco DNA Center is essential for maintaining high-quality network performance in enterprise environments.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A company is implementing a new network security policy that includes the use of a firewall and an intrusion detection system (IDS). The network administrator is tasked with ensuring that the firewall is configured to allow only necessary traffic while the IDS is set to monitor for any unauthorized access attempts. After configuring the firewall, the administrator notices that legitimate traffic is being blocked. What is the most effective approach to resolve this issue while maintaining a high level of security?
Correct
The most effective approach is to review and adjust the firewall rules. This involves analyzing the traffic logs to identify which legitimate traffic is being blocked and then modifying the rules to permit that traffic while ensuring that the overall security posture remains intact. This might include allowing specific IP addresses, ports, or protocols that are essential for business operations without compromising security. Disabling the firewall temporarily is not advisable as it exposes the network to potential threats during that period. Increasing the sensitivity of the IDS may lead to an overwhelming number of alerts, including false positives, which can obscure genuine threats and complicate incident response. Implementing a VPN for all users to bypass firewall restrictions is also counterproductive, as it undermines the purpose of the firewall and could introduce additional vulnerabilities. In summary, the best practice is to maintain a proactive approach by continuously monitoring and adjusting firewall rules based on legitimate traffic needs while ensuring that security measures are not compromised. This iterative process is crucial for effective network security assurance, as it allows organizations to adapt to changing traffic patterns and emerging threats while maintaining operational efficiency.
Incorrect
The most effective approach is to review and adjust the firewall rules. This involves analyzing the traffic logs to identify which legitimate traffic is being blocked and then modifying the rules to permit that traffic while ensuring that the overall security posture remains intact. This might include allowing specific IP addresses, ports, or protocols that are essential for business operations without compromising security. Disabling the firewall temporarily is not advisable as it exposes the network to potential threats during that period. Increasing the sensitivity of the IDS may lead to an overwhelming number of alerts, including false positives, which can obscure genuine threats and complicate incident response. Implementing a VPN for all users to bypass firewall restrictions is also counterproductive, as it undermines the purpose of the firewall and could introduce additional vulnerabilities. In summary, the best practice is to maintain a proactive approach by continuously monitoring and adjusting firewall rules based on legitimate traffic needs while ensuring that security measures are not compromised. This iterative process is crucial for effective network security assurance, as it allows organizations to adapt to changing traffic patterns and emerging threats while maintaining operational efficiency.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
In a service provider network utilizing MPLS, a network engineer is tasked with configuring a new MPLS label-switched path (LSP) between two routers, R1 and R2. The engineer needs to ensure that the LSP can handle a traffic load of 1 Gbps with a maximum latency of 50 ms. Given that the average packet size is 1500 bytes, calculate the minimum number of labels required to maintain the desired performance, considering that each label adds an overhead of 4 bytes. Additionally, if the network experiences a 10% increase in traffic, how would this affect the LSP configuration in terms of bandwidth allocation?
Correct
$$ 1500 \text{ bytes} = 1500 \times 8 \text{ bits} = 12000 \text{ bits}. $$ To find the number of packets transmitted per second, we divide the total bandwidth by the packet size: $$ \text{Packets per second} = \frac{1 \times 10^9 \text{ bits per second}}{12000 \text{ bits per packet}} \approx 83333.33 \text{ packets per second}. $$ Next, we consider the overhead introduced by the MPLS labels. Each label adds 4 bytes (or 32 bits) of overhead. Therefore, the effective packet size becomes: $$ \text{Effective packet size} = 1500 \text{ bytes} + 4 \text{ bytes} = 1504 \text{ bytes} = 1504 \times 8 \text{ bits} = 12032 \text{ bits}. $$ Now, we recalculate the packets per second with the overhead: $$ \text{Packets per second with overhead} = \frac{1 \times 10^9 \text{ bits per second}}{12032 \text{ bits per packet}} \approx 83168.67 \text{ packets per second}. $$ To maintain the desired performance, the LSP must be able to handle the increased traffic load. With a 10% increase in traffic, the new traffic load becomes: $$ \text{New traffic load} = 1 \text{ Gbps} \times 1.1 = 1.1 \text{ Gbps}. $$ This translates to: $$ 1.1 \text{ Gbps} = 1.1 \times 10^9 \text{ bits per second}. $$ Using the same effective packet size of 12032 bits, we find the new packets per second: $$ \text{New packets per second} = \frac{1.1 \times 10^9 \text{ bits per second}}{12032 \text{ bits per packet}} \approx 91683.67 \text{ packets per second}. $$ This analysis indicates that the LSP must be configured to accommodate at least 1.1 Gbps to handle the increased traffic, ensuring that the network can maintain performance standards. Thus, the minimum number of labels required is 2, as the overhead must be accounted for in the overall bandwidth allocation.
Incorrect
$$ 1500 \text{ bytes} = 1500 \times 8 \text{ bits} = 12000 \text{ bits}. $$ To find the number of packets transmitted per second, we divide the total bandwidth by the packet size: $$ \text{Packets per second} = \frac{1 \times 10^9 \text{ bits per second}}{12000 \text{ bits per packet}} \approx 83333.33 \text{ packets per second}. $$ Next, we consider the overhead introduced by the MPLS labels. Each label adds 4 bytes (or 32 bits) of overhead. Therefore, the effective packet size becomes: $$ \text{Effective packet size} = 1500 \text{ bytes} + 4 \text{ bytes} = 1504 \text{ bytes} = 1504 \times 8 \text{ bits} = 12032 \text{ bits}. $$ Now, we recalculate the packets per second with the overhead: $$ \text{Packets per second with overhead} = \frac{1 \times 10^9 \text{ bits per second}}{12032 \text{ bits per packet}} \approx 83168.67 \text{ packets per second}. $$ To maintain the desired performance, the LSP must be able to handle the increased traffic load. With a 10% increase in traffic, the new traffic load becomes: $$ \text{New traffic load} = 1 \text{ Gbps} \times 1.1 = 1.1 \text{ Gbps}. $$ This translates to: $$ 1.1 \text{ Gbps} = 1.1 \times 10^9 \text{ bits per second}. $$ Using the same effective packet size of 12032 bits, we find the new packets per second: $$ \text{New packets per second} = \frac{1.1 \times 10^9 \text{ bits per second}}{12032 \text{ bits per packet}} \approx 91683.67 \text{ packets per second}. $$ This analysis indicates that the LSP must be configured to accommodate at least 1.1 Gbps to handle the increased traffic, ensuring that the network can maintain performance standards. Thus, the minimum number of labels required is 2, as the overhead must be accounted for in the overall bandwidth allocation.